Originally Posted by Praxeas (Post 1038442)

Context is everything
1Co 1:11 For it has been declared to me concerning you, my brothers, by those of Chloe, that there are contentions among you.
1Co 1:12 But I say this, that every one of you says, I am of Paul, and I of Apollos, and I of Cephas, and I of Christ.
1Co 1:13 Is Christ divided? Was Paul crucified for you, or were you baptized in the name of Paul?
1Co 1:14 I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius,
1Co 1:15 lest any should say that I had baptized in my own name.
1Co 1:16 And I also baptized the household of Stephanas. Besides these, I do not know if I baptized any other.
1Co 1:17 For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel; not in wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect.

It was related to the contention in the Corinthian church. Some of them were arrogantly claiming to be disciples of Paul. Baptism was seen as an act of discipleship. John the baptist baptized his followers and made them "disciples of John"...

That is also why we baptize in Jesus name. We are making them disciples of Christ by proxy...baptizing them in His place. Paul did not want any part of that foolishness,which is why he was glad he had not baptized any of them

Originally Posted by BeenThinkin (Post 1038443)

Sorry I've been away from the computer. Thanks for the responses. But again no one has responded to my question.... Why did Paul say ...... 1Co 1:17 [B] For Christ did not send me to baptize, .... I find it interesting that he would make this kind of statement concerning something so important.

Just wonderin

Been Thinkin (Too much)

Originally Posted by BeenThinkin (Post 1038052)

If baptism is one of the steps of the 3 step plan of salvation why did Christ not send Paul to do it?

1 Corinthians 1:14* ¶ I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius;
15* Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.
16* And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.
17* ¶ For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

Why would Paul be go glad that he baptized so few?

Why didn't he make it as important as many make it today?

Am I wrong, (shouldn't have asked that on AFF), but doesn't it seem strange how Paul talked so nonchalantly about baptism if it is in fact a part of a 3 step plan?

Been Thinkin

Originally Posted by Apprehended (Post 1038472)

While I do not recall the name of the pastor of the church at Corinth, but whoever he was was given that charge. It would have been proper order for him to do the baptizing. Paul said that he was not sent there for the purpose of baptizing anyone. It seems to me that Paul simply recognized and acknowledged proper order. It doesn't seem too mysterious to me, especially since baptism is a work of the cross in a believer's life. Surely, Paul recognized that too since...his preaching was the cross.

Paul is not saying that Christ did not commission him or sent him to baptize. We find that Paul was definitely sent by Christ to baptize from the account given in Acts 19, passing through the upper coast he came to Ephesus. Baptism was so important to Paul that he rebaptized those Baptist in the name of Jesus. The commission to baptize was given to Christ's Apostles in Matt 28 and elsewhere. Certainly Paul knew his commission in seeing that believers were baptized. Obviously, he did not fail the commission at Corinth.

Originally Posted by Sam (Post 1038112)

George L. Glass Sr. and W.E. Gamblin?
weren't they both one-steppers?

Originally Posted by Ferd (Post 1038658)

George Glass Sr. was not a one stepper. that has been discussed and rediscussed.

Originally Posted by Aquila (Post 1038619)

I just thought I'd drop this one here...

We have to keep in mind that the NT church didn't reflect what we call church today. Essentially the "church in Corinth" wasn't a single body meeting in a building. But rather it was the entire body of Christ dwelling in Corinth. These believers were obviously meeting in various homes throughout the region. We do see what might be an elder (pastor) mentioned....

Corinthians 1:11 (English Standard Version)
11For it has been reported to me by Chloe’s people that there is quarreling among you, my brothers.

Apparently some believers who were meeting in the house of one named Chloe were writing Paul concerning some of the issues this network of believers were facing. Chloe may very well have been the elder or "pastor" of one of these house churches.

Paul's letter wasn't read over a pulpit to a single church as we know it. Most likely it was copied and/or circulated throughout the churches meeting in various places in the city of Corinth.

Originally Posted by Sam (Post 1038659)

I remember that he was discussed and some posted anecdotal evidence that he was a one-stepper and others posted anecdotal evidence that he was not, so since he did not answer for himself, I guess we'll never know--and, whether he was or not is actually none of our business.

Originally Posted by BeenThinkin (Post 1038443)

Sorry I've been away from the computer. Thanks for the responses. But again no one has responded to my question.... Why did Paul say ...... 1Co 1:17 [b] For Christ did not send me to baptize, .... I find it interesting that he would make this kind of statement concerning something so important.

Just wonderin

Been Thinkin (Too much)