Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Here's how it reads in the KJV
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

Notice that in our printed copies the word "given" is in italics which means it is not in the original but has been supplied by the English translators.

The verse could read:
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

The Holy Ghost was not yet?
What does that mean?
The Holy Ghost did not yet exist?
Can't be, He's called the eternal Spirit and He hovered over the waters in Genesis 1. He's always been.

It must mean something else.
In my opinion it means that the time of the universal availability and outpouring of the Holy Spirit had not yet arrived. His activity had been limited before but after the death of Jesus He would be universally available.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

700 years BC the Prophet Joel prophesied of a time when God would pour His Spirit out upon all flesh. That time had not yet arrived when Jesus spoke those words in John chapter 7, but the time was certainly drawing near.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Well it read as it reads either elizabeth had it or she did not and somethng is not accurate either luke scripture or john scripture

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

I believe the "Holy Ghost" in Elizabeth was the manifestation of God himself. The Holy Ghost has always existed.

The Holy Ghost in Acts, was the "outpouring" which was accompanied with tongues, which had a beginning.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Mr Steinway how would you explain John 7:39?

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Sam just explained his position on that verse in post #31 above.

I think he explained it very well actually.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

38He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

39(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

IMO, This was a prophecy of what would happen in Acts 2.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

So elizabeth did not have the holyghost like the bible tells us according to this..

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Amazing.
KS is insisting on pointing out some kind of contradiction... when there is none.

3 different people on this thread so far have pointed that out, but he keeps missing it.
-----

KS, maybe you should ask your pastor, and see what he thinks.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

She had the Holy Spirit and so did John from the womb and other Old Testament characters, the difference was tongues.

The gift of tongues was given at Pentecost to unite the world through Christ. They heard them magnify and praise God in their own tongue.

The distinct work of the Holy Spirit after the resurrection was to testify of Christ which had come and was visibly gone back to heaven.

The continued work of miracles, signs and wonders through the Apostles was the validation of Jesus' ministry through the Apostles.

Don't let the doctrinists confuse you...lol