Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theology!
 

I've been reading about this topic for some time now, but I can't fully grasp what the core differences between a "1-stepper" and a "3-stepper".

Someone please enlighten me.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Its an old issue around here. Many of us are tired of even talking about it.

But these threads will give you a solid understanding of what the differences are.

http://www.apostolicfriendsforum.com...ad.php?t=20347
http://www.apostolicfriendsforum.com...ad.php?t=10349
http://www.apostolicfriendsforum.com...ad.php?t=14145
http://www.apostolicfriendsforum.com...ad.php?t=13950

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Gotcha. Thanks for the links.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

We've cussed and discussed this over and over and I see that you have been given some links so this post may be redundant.

As far as I know these forums are the only place we use the terms "one-stepper and three-stepper." They are some times used with descriptive words like "PCI one-stepper" and "PAJC three-stepper." This goes back to 1945 when the UPC was formed. Two organizations were merged. They were the PCI (Pentecostal Church Inc.) and the PAJC (Pentecostal Assemblies of Jesus Christ). Many (we really don't know the figures or percentage) of the PCI ministers believed that a person was justified/saved/ born again at repentance and then should get baptized in Jesus' Name as a testimony and act of obedience and as a child of God that person was also promised an experience called the Holy Ghost Baptism. Many (and again we don't know the figure or percentage) of the PAJC ministers believed a person was not justified/saved/born again until that person had repented, been baptized in Jesus' Name and had received the Holy Ghost Baptism.

So, both PCI and PAJC, or both one-steppers and three-steppers believe in Oneness, both believe in baptism in Jesus name. and both believe in the Holy Ghost Baptism. There just is not agreement as to how and when a person is actually saved or born again.

Because there was opposition among both PCI and PAJC ministers to the merger, the fundamental doctrine statement was written the way it was so those of both opinions could agree to it. Some ministers did not go along with the merger and the PAJC organization still exists today.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

one-step = right

three-step = wrong

:couch

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Sam you left out the most important part. One steppers believe a person can go to heaven without being baptised in Jesus name or recieving the HG.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

One Step - Leaves folks in the Grave - Repentance only

Three Step- Offers folks a Resurrection - Believes that a person must be filled with the Holy Ghost to overcome the world...

:)

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

1 step= believe and accept Jesus in your heart as your Lord and Savior - *poof* saved

3 step = repent, baptism, infilling of the HG, evidenced by speaking in other tongues = salvation.

isnt that right?

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Initial salvation BEGINS with repentance but is not COMPLETE without water and spirit baptism.

My version of the three step doctrine.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

yep got to have those tongues even though there were people in the bible that had the holyghost long before tongues came on the scene

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

One step believes that if you place faith in Jesus Christ and believe you are borned again at the point of repentance.
Three step says you ain't borned of water and spirit until you repent,get baptized in Jesus Name and receive the baptism of the Holy Ghost with the physical sign of speaking in tongues,as the spirit gives the utterance.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

I followed three steps and was still in the grave. I am just glad I wasn't in charge of my salvation. Glad to know God has the ability to complete the work that he started.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

I thought I said that.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

I don't have a clue how to define the self defined steps.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

well, I can't speak for all one-steppers, but it is my opinion that when a person comes to Jesus in faith and repentance, that person is placed "in Christ" and has therefore died, been buried, has risen with Christ and is seated with Him in the Heavenlies (ref Ephesians 2 and Romans 6).

In my opinion, water baptism is a public burial of the person you used to be and a public display that not only is the old person dead and buried you have also risen to walk in newness of life. If water baptism is just a burial, wouldn't the person remain under the water?

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Not necessarily! Repentance to many is seperate from initial faith that saves. Many will even argue one does not have to repent to be saved.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

trying to stay aaaaa waaaaay.....

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

hmmm, . . . repentance is a turning away from our sinful nature and turning towards God. This isn't a work but a change in our hearts. I believe repentance is separate from faith but also that true faith in God will result in repentance. We can't repent until after we have faith.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

That's been addressed here many times before.

What people had previously was not the same Holy Ghost experience as what the NT church later received.

John himself said the Holy Ghost would not be given until after Jesus was glorified.

John 7:39: The Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Ok so the bible lies when it states Elizabeth was filled with the Holyghost?

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

In the Old Testament people were moved, filled, and energized by the Spirit. The Spirit is said to have been in them and to have come upon them. Under the New Testament we have all of that but we also have an experience called a baptism in the Spirit. Both John the baptizer and Jesus spoke of an experience in the Spirit that is similar to baptism in water.

Also, in the Old Testament, the work of the Spirit seems to be limited to certain people, places, and conditions whereas in the New Testament the work of the Holy Spirit is available to anyone at any time and in any place.

The New Testament is the day, age (or dispensation) of the Holy Spirit.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

I do not disagree! My point was in the world of theology to many they are clearly seperate and one can be saved without repentance.


I will say though I have to disagree that repentance is not a work. A response to God is always a work/choice. People are so afraid of the term work it's sad. Different meaning of work and applications! I can say both one is saved by works and one is not saved by works and they both be true. It's what is meant by works and the context. Just like I can say law saves and law does not save.... context

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

In part I would agree... There is a difference though in the relationship to the Spirit than before. The Spirit was not on the hearts of man like now. Otherwise Jer 31:31-33 is contradictory.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Of course not.
It's about context, sir.

Lemme ask you this... using your logic.... does the bible lie in John 7:39 when it says "THE HOLY GHOST WAS NOT YET GIVEN ; because that Jesus was not yet glorified. ?

Why dont you deal with that scripture I presented to you? I see you totally ignored it.

It's not about the bible "lying". It's about knowing what a passage means in proper context.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

No, many were filled with the Spirit under the Old Covenant.
The Apostle Peter said that the under the Old Covenant folks were moved (borne along) by the Spirit (2 Peter 1:21) and that the Spirit of Christ was in them (1 Peter 1:11).

Back then tongues were not mentioned in association with the Spirit's work.
I had a pastor who taught that in the Old Testament the evidence of the Spirit's infilling was prophecy and in the New Testament the evidence is tongues.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Ok so John did not know what he was talking about cause he said the holyghost had not been given but elizabeth had it so did john not know what he was talking about?

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

I am not trying to be hard here but come on guys it reads as it reads real simple...

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

At the time Jesus spoke the words recorded in John chapter 7 the Spirit was restricted to a certain group of people. After the death and resurrection of Jesus, the Spirit would be freely given to whomsoever wanted Him.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

So it all boils down to elizabeth really did not have the holyghost even though the bible tells us she did and john chapter 7 says she could not have had it...

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Here's how it reads in the KJV
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

Notice that in our printed copies the word "given" is in italics which means it is not in the original but has been supplied by the English translators.

The verse could read:
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

The Holy Ghost was not yet?
What does that mean?
The Holy Ghost did not yet exist?
Can't be, He's called the eternal Spirit and He hovered over the waters in Genesis 1. He's always been.

It must mean something else.
In my opinion it means that the time of the universal availability and outpouring of the Holy Spirit had not yet arrived. His activity had been limited before but after the death of Jesus He would be universally available.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

700 years BC the Prophet Joel prophesied of a time when God would pour His Spirit out upon all flesh. That time had not yet arrived when Jesus spoke those words in John chapter 7, but the time was certainly drawing near.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Well it read as it reads either elizabeth had it or she did not and somethng is not accurate either luke scripture or john scripture

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

I believe the "Holy Ghost" in Elizabeth was the manifestation of God himself. The Holy Ghost has always existed.

The Holy Ghost in Acts, was the "outpouring" which was accompanied with tongues, which had a beginning.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Mr Steinway how would you explain John 7:39?

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Sam just explained his position on that verse in post #31 above.

I think he explained it very well actually.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

38He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

39(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

IMO, This was a prophecy of what would happen in Acts 2.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

So elizabeth did not have the holyghost like the bible tells us according to this..

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

Amazing.
KS is insisting on pointing out some kind of contradiction... when there is none.

3 different people on this thread so far have pointed that out, but he keeps missing it.
-----

KS, maybe you should ask your pastor, and see what he thinks.

Re: Someone please define 1 step and 3 step theolo
 

She had the Holy Spirit and so did John from the womb and other Old Testament characters, the difference was tongues.

The gift of tongues was given at Pentecost to unite the world through Christ. They heard them magnify and praise God in their own tongue.

The distinct work of the Holy Spirit after the resurrection was to testify of Christ which had come and was visibly gone back to heaven.

The continued work of miracles, signs and wonders through the Apostles was the validation of Jesus' ministry through the Apostles.

Don't let the doctrinists confuse you...lol