The Kingdom of God And The OT.
 

In the gospels we find Jesus Christ and John The Baptist both preaching the Kingdom of God or The Kingdom of Heaven was near or at hand.
But why isn't the term Kingdom Of God mentioned in The Old Testament ?

The Kingdom of God And The OT.
 

Bro. Scott,

Could it be because that the OT was a natural kingdom, and the Kingdom

of God was to be a spiritual Kingdom. Out of the wilderness of the OT

came a man called John, preaching that the people should repent for the

kingdom of God was at hand. The Jehovah of the OT appeared robed in

flesh and lying in a manager. His name would be called Immanuel which

being interpeted is "God with us". He would be called Jesus, for He would

save HIS people from their sins. He came from the tribe of Judea, which

were called Jews, consisting of Judea, Benjamites and Levites. This was

not the tribles known as Israel.(10 tribes) but Judea. John proclaimed the

coming of the Messiah. The kingdom of God would not be meat and drink

but righteousness, peace and joy, in the Holy Ghost. Jesus would later

tell His disciples that He was WITH them but would be IN them. Christ in

you, the HOPE (Israel's Hope) of glory. God had walked with men but would

know be in man.

The Kingdom of God had not come yet. The Seed (Jesus Christ) had not

come yet, and been that grain of wheat sown into the ground, that brought

forth much harvest! What think ye!

Blessings,

Falla39

It's like God was to rule, Himself, as in the days before He told Samuel to anoint Saul.

Because the Kingdom of God is righteousness, peace , and joy in the Holy Ghost and the Holy Ghost was not given in the Old Testament and indeed it could not be until the Gospel of Jesus was completed in the death, burial and resurrection! The KoG/KoH is what we are a part of spiritually when we are baptized into Christ in water and Spirit.

1 Chronicles 29:10-12, 1 Kings 9:5, and Daniel 4:3

The phrase itself won't come up with a search through the OT, however the idea is present. Among Jews, the idea became even more fervent in the intertestimal period.

They had lost their earthly kingdom that God had appeared to have said was "eternal" (1 Kings 9:5) when the Babylonians invaded. Okay, just a 'set back' due to some disobedience they reasoned, but then the Seleucid Empire (one of Alexander's successor empires) dominated the Israelite state and produced severe persecution against the worship of the Lord. This led to a rebellion and the Maccabean or Hashmonean state. That was good until the coming of Herod the Idumean (Edomite) and his Roman patrons. Then after Herod died the Romans appeared to want to stay.

So the whole "eternal kingdom" idea took a bit of a beating over the years. That is, until Jesus came and pointed out what should have been obvious: the "kingdom" does not come "with your careful observation..." (NIV) but is "within you..." (Luke 21:20-37).

I understand prophetically The Kingdom of God is spoken of in Daniel ,and such but I was just wondering why it wasn't termed The Kingdom of God as such in the OT.

That phrase came into common usage in the Apocalyptic literature and times of the intertestimal period.

I was thinking that perhaps it had something to do with the Jews not mentioning the name G-D.

The rabbis did refrain from saying "G-d" in almost any sense, not just the hashem or "The Name" (YHWH).

Matthew's gospel seems to follow the rabbinic tradition because he uses, "Kingdom of Heaven" which was the phrase used by the rabbis (Hebrew: "Malkut Shamayim").

The Kingdom of God And The OT.
 

Because it wasn't time yet!

First that which is natural and then that which is spiritual.

The natural kingdom came in the Old Testament (Covenant).

The New Testament (Covenant) ushered in a spiritual kingdom.

A better covenant with better promises.

Blessings,

Falla39

One of the first mentions of the Kingdom.

1: Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.
2: He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street.
3: A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth.
4: He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law.
5: Thus saith God the LORD, he that created the heavens, and stretched them out; he that spread forth the earth, and that which cometh out of it; he that giveth breath unto the people upon it, and spirit to them that walk therein:
6: I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles; Isaiah 42:1-6

Yes! And so God's dealings with men has changed as well in the NT dispensation of grace.

So we can safely say that the Kingdom of God that was near or at hand in the gospels came in on The Day Of Pentecost.

Yes, and not awaiting 2000 years afterwards.

Yes, and... awaiting some undetermined time afterward and filling all of the time in between.

So a Kingdom age and a church age would be one and the same ?

I would say "Yes" but you must keep in mind that there's also a distinction. The "Kingdom" that is still to be experienced includes the promise of no more tears and no more death. We obviously aren't there yet.

But we are living in the earnest of the inheritance. The prefigurement of a far better life that is to come.

I agree as when we have a immortal body that is a far better state of existence than what we have now.

I understand that there's an immortal body already prepared for you, Bother Scott. It's propped up on a couch in the Heavenly Kindom with a glass of iced Dr Pepper on the end table next to it. :)

You must be Parson! ;)

Actually our paths have probably crossed in round-about ways in the past, but I am merely who I appear to be.