Quote:
Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea
How do Christ's words play into this discussion?
"The one who practices sin is of the devil; for the devil has sinned from the beginning. The Son of God appeared for this purpose, that He might destroy the works of the devil." (1 John 3:8)
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And what about these verses?
Joh 8:44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.
Romans 6:16 Know ye not,
that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?
Ac 26:18 To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God,
Heb 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
1 Corinthians 15:55-57 O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory? The sting of death is sin; and the strength of sin is the law. But thanks be to God, which giveth us the victory through our Lord Jesus Christ.
Can these verses be applied to sinners being servants to Satan? And if someone is a servant to the ruler of the darkness of this world does that mean they automatically can be possessed by a devil at the devil's whim?
As a sinner, I may have been oppressed by the devil but I was never possessed by a demon. How does the devil pick and chose who to possess? Does there have to be a willingness on part of the one who is possessed?