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Old 05-22-2007, 07:37 AM
Iron_Bladder
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Praxeas View Post
Prove that it was his putting himself in front of the word Father grammatically that made them think he was claiming to be God


Well Praxeas it’s very simply, the Son was clearly claiming to be Yahweh God at John 10:30 and because the sentence is so short you only have two options;

1) Placing himself ‘I’ before his Father implied equality with him.
2) The use of the word ‘one’ in the neuter from which is ‘Hen’ in Greek implied equality with the Father.
3) I can’t see any other claim to deity within this particular verse! But if you can then please tell me about it as i'd love to know what it is.

Now seeing that the apostles were also said to be ‘one’ (hen) with both the Father and the Son at John 17:21-23, this second option is extremely doubtful indeed, unless a person is a Mormon who believes as they do that men can become Gods. Alternatively, to place your name before that of another person implies equality in ever culture that I’ve ever read about. If you think of it, it’s extremely arrogant to speak of Myself and God even in English, for by putting your own name first you focus upon yourself and not upon God as the primary subject of the sentence. To speak of yourself; ‘I’ before somebody else implies equality in Jewish culture. However, if both of my options 1 and 2 are wrong, then were on earth do you see a claim to deity within John 10:30? If it’s there and I’ve missed it because both of my options are wrong, then where on earth does the Son claim to be deity?