[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Iron_Bladder

That’s impossible, for the plural verb forms imply that Christ isn’t God the Father at John 10:30 and that neither he nor the Father are the apostles at John 17:21-23. If Christ had wished to claim to be the Father, then he would have instead have used the verb to be in the first person singular; ‘I am the Father.’ Yet Christ never said this, proving that he’s not God the Father at all.

Putting your name before that of somebody else doesn’t mean that you are that person, and so I never made that claim, its simply a claim to equality or superiority in Greek and in most other languages for that matter. When referring to another person, in polite conversation we’d say even in English; ‘Praxes and I’ but never; ‘I and Praxeas,’ and certainly not ‘I and God,’ for being inferior to God you always put his name first to signify yoru subordination to him. So hey whan Christ put his name first; 'I and My Father' he's saying that he's equal to the Father - to God himself.

Before we continue you should prove that putting I before Father proves Jesus was making himself equal to God.