Quote:
Originally Posted by Esaias
I think each passage would have to be looked at individually. In this present case, the apostle is quoting an OT scripture, so the underlying sense is to be derived from that OT passage. Then, the NT use of that passage is examined to see how it is being understood and applied. In other cases, where the NT is not quoting the OT, we have to consider the context and how the original audience would have likely understood what was being claimed by the writer/speaker.
One thing is certain: Christianity in its earliest forms ascribed deity to Christ in some fashion, for a reason. That being done, Christians have (since then) argued what the significance of it is, and how it affects our understanding of Biblical monotheism, with some arguments being better than others, etc.
|
Perhaps we could start with one verse and go from there?
I am interested in your thoughts about
Exodus 7:1 (ESV),
And the LORD said to Moses, “See, I have made you like God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron shall be your prophet.
If you look at the Hebrew here:
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/exodus/7-1.htm
you can see that there is no word for "like". There is no prefix attached to אֱלֹהִ֖ים. It is simply
elohim, or God/god.*
So, the text might read better as "See, I have made you God/god to Pharaoh..."
Clearly, Moses did not experience apotheosis and actually become a divine being worthy of being called God/god. He remained fully human. So, something different appears to be happening here. It looks to me more like an investiture of supreme, divine power and authority being given to him over Egypt. It reminds me of
Matthew 28:18 (All authority in heaven and on earth has been given unto Me).
If this is so, what bearing, if any, would this idea have on the nature and being of Christ?
* I note the definite article is not present, making
elohim anarthrous, so perhaps, the phrase could/should read "I am have you a God/a god...".