Quote:
Originally Posted by coksiw
Interesting thoughts, Esaias. So are you saying that when Paul used the word "Gentiles" he was referring exclusively to the house of Israel that departed from God, and not to the "nations" in general whether they were descendants of Abraham according to the flesh?
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I am saying the primary usage by Paul in the passages under discussion are referring to the gentile House of Israel (which must be the case since he specifically referenced Hosea which specifically referred to the northern House of Israel as a distinct entity from Judah). The other "non Abrahamic nations" are included by proxy as per
Isaiah 56:6-8. The northern House of Israel was classified by God as Lo-Ammi, "Not My People", ie gentiles.