Quote:
Originally Posted by votivesoul
Brother, why double-down? If the word "sabbath" isn't in a verse, then it isn't there. End of story. Just because translators have used the word "rest" to translate into English several different Hebrew terms, it does not make them equivalent to one another in meaning.
And it's not a question of maybe. You can look at the Hebrew text yourself and see that "sabbath" isn't there.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/isaiah/28-12.htm
As far as Esaias' treatment of the text, he is correct. Paul's use of Isaiah 28:11-12 in relationship to the gift of tongues is in regard to it being a sign for the unbelievers ( 1 Corinthians 14:22), just as the invading nations who spoke other languages would be a sign to the unbelieving, drunken Israelite priests and prophets that God had sent these invading nations as a judgment, and as proof that God was speaking to them through Isaiah. |
The sole purpose of the Sabbath is for rest, correct?
Exodus 20:11
For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and
rested (נוּחַ) the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.
Lemma:
נוּח ⟺ נוּחַ
Transliteration: nûach
Pronunciation: noo'-akh
Part of Speech: Verb
Root Word (Etymology):
A primitive root
BDB Lexicon:
1. to rest
Isaiah 28:12
To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to
rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.
Here in Isaiah is that word rest(nûach) again. You may not believe that there is any correlation, but it jumps out at me.