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Old 09-22-2022, 12:35 AM
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Esaias Esaias is offline
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Re: 3.5 years or 1260 years

Quote:
Originally Posted by good samaritan View Post
I think it is rightly applied to Daniels 70weeks. But to manipulate a time,times, and a 1/2 time to = 1260 years seems to be a stretch. I really try to understand other points of view, but I am struggling here.
First of all, this discussion has nothing to do with the SDA church. The fact they use the year-day principle has no more connection to them being seventh day Adventists than the fact many Baptists are pretribbers has anything to do with them being Baptists.

Second, the term "time" is understood to mean a year. The year is understood to mean 360 days (12 months of 30 days each, an average distribution of days and months). A time, times, and half of a time would then be 3 and a half years, or 1260 days total.

For example:

And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred and threescore days.
(Rev 12:6)

Here, the woman goes into the wilderness for 1260 days for protection and nourishment.

And when the dragon saw that he was cast unto the earth, he persecuted the woman which brought forth the man child. And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.
(Rev 12:13-14)

Here, the same time frame is identified as a time, times, and half a time. Thus, the time, times, and half a time is 1260 days, which equates to 3.5 years of 360 days each.

Now, if one agrees that the so-called Year-Day Principle is valid, then one can easily see these Apocalyptic prophecies as being concerned with a 1260 year period (1260 days, a day for a year, 1260 actual years). Of course, if one does NOT agree that the Year-Day Principle is valid, then one will of course not think the Scripture could possibly be talking about 1260 years of actual time.

Why one would think the Principle is NOT valid, when it was used by God directly Himself to establish the time of the Israelites' wanderings in the wilderness, and when it was given to Ezekiel specifically to represent symbolic prophetical time, is a mystery to me, unless it was only because it would possibly conflict with a preconceived interpretation of prophecy.
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