Quote:
Originally Posted by coksiw
According to the different points of view expressed here, what do you think Paul was saying in this verse?
1 Timothy 3:2 (NKJV)
A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good behavior, hospitable, able to teach; |
Christian authors have been divided on the subject for as long as post-apostolic Christian writings on the subject have existed.
The primary views commonly held seem to be:
1. Must be married, and must be married only once in his life, and must resign the office upon the cessation of the marriage (Orthodox interpretation).
2. Must not be a polygamist.
3. Must not have successive marriages due to divorce.
Judging from the context, which enumerates required qualities of an overseer dealing primarily with the idea of self control, restraint, and soberness, and which identifies ruling one's house well as a pattern and requirement for overseeing a congregation, I am inclined to believe Paul is saying the never married and polygamists are excluded, as are serial divorced-and-remarried.
The first class have never managed a family household, the second class are overly sensual and given to opulence (common in the ancient East in that time), and the third class clearly can't run a household
well.
Could there be exceptions to that rule? Possibly, but there would have to be extraordinarily strong reasons for such an EXCEPTIONal candidate, and another who met the requirements would be the preferred choice.
I also don't think any of this applies to most denominational institutional churches as found today, since those aren't organized Biblically and apostolically anyway to begin with. The apostle is establishing ordinances for apostolic and theocratic "house churches", not 501c3 corporations and quasi-catholic religious temples.