Thread: Sinful union?
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Old 07-25-2007, 05:28 PM
SDG SDG is offline
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Join Date: Feb 2007
Location: H-Town, Texas
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Adino View Post
Wikipedia begins its definition of "Spiritual Death" with the following:



Because of the abrupt realities involved, most of us better grasp the concept of physical death than we do spiritual death. When we see a loved one lying in a coffin we realize the real person is no longer present but has "departed." We recognize that a separation has occurred, that a union of spirit and flesh has been broken.

When we begin to think of spiritual death we attempt to understand what it means for the human spirit to have "died" because of the Fall. We attempt to again grasp the idea of separation and what it meant for the Spirit of God to have departed from the spirit of man breaking a once existing union between the two.

When the human spirit departs from the physical body only a lifeless vestige of the real person remains. In like fashion, the Spirit of Life departed from the human spirit leaving only a darkened shadow of God's real intended creation. The intended creation involved fellowship with God through a union of His Spirit with ours.

Sin broke union of man's spirit with God by forcing that which was holy to depart. Sin brought separation - the wage of Sin was death.

I think most on this forum would agree with this so far. Some might even think this elementary.

Sin brought separation - now let's focus on reunion and get to a question.

In order for the human spirit to become alive again there must be a reestablishment of the union between the human spirit and God. The human spirit must be quickened to life by virtue of being united with the Spirit of God. For this to take place that which causes separation must be removed.

Since the holy nature of God prohibits union with anything considered sinful, how is it the theology of many on this forum seems to suggest that God can dwell in and/or become unified with a heart which has not had sin removed?

Is this not precisely what most here would say happened in the case of Cornelius in Acts 10 and happens to anyone who speaks in tongues prior to being water baptized?

Thanks in advance for your thoughts.

God bless
Brilliant as always? Considering you have only 4 other posts. Yet I was reading them recently ... and your understanding of the New Birth and John 3 is something that we all could learn from

Your thoughts on why God cannot dwell in a sinful vessel is one reason why the doctrine of baptismal remission holds no merit ...

Also, remission is not a different concept than forgiveness ... the original Greek uses the same word "aphesis".

Perhaps you can speak about the pet verse objection that will undoubtedly surface in this thread ....

And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord. Acts 22:16 KJV
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