[OGIA]

Originally Posted by Chan

That's it? Just "Oh"?

Yes, just "oh", since you don't see that Jesus clearly said He manifested His Father's name. The only name we have scripture declaring He mainfested is Jesus Christ. If you don't see that, why should I belabor the point?

It wasn't a personal attack. Your question that prompted the statement was evidence that you didn't comprehend what I had posted previously.

Then maybe you should have attacked me by saying I should brush up on my "comprehension" skills?

No, what you asked was "So, His "fatherhood" was manifested in the man Jesus Christ?"

Ok, so now I ask you: how can God be manifested in flesh while something of Him, His Fatherhood, is not?

YHVH

This is the name of God? What about the Father? Same person, same name? Or no?

I prefer to say that Jesus (the Son) is the manifestation of God, as in 1 Timothy 3:16 (KJV), "God was manifest in the flesh."

I agree that the Son is the manifestation of God, but the verse does not say the Son was manifested in flesh. It says God. But, according to you, not all of God was manifested in flesh, right?

It still refers only to His humanity.

Christ refers to His humanity. God could not be the Messiah without flesh, right? His diety lies in the name we get by transliteration from YHVH-Savior, Jesus. But, the two cannot be separated. Diety + humanity (Yahweh-Savior + Messiah) are fused into the One called Jesus Christ. The diety was that of the Father, the humanity was that of a woman.

There is no evidence in scripture to show that the logos was ever named.

Really? John 1 clearly tells us the name of the logos when He was manifested in flesh.