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Old 03-14-2007, 04:00 PM
OGIA OGIA is offline


 
Join Date: Mar 2007
Location: Shreveport, LA
Posts: 789
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Originally Posted by Chan View Post
The same as it was throughout the Old Testament.
Which is?


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I answered it.
With an analogy that does not fit or work.


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I'm not the one who said God manifests only certain parts of Himself. Go back to where I specifically said it was GOD that was manifest in the flesh and not His fatherhood, His holiness, etc.
You are not saying it, but there's no other way for me to take it. If GOD was manifested in flesh, then ALL of Him was. He did not leave His fatherhood or holiness at home.


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In other words, it was the person/being of God that was revealed and not merely some role or attribute.
So, Jesus Christ is the "person/being" of God?


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Actually, where the scripture says LORD in all capital letters we can always insert YHVH.
But, you said that YHVH was the name of God, didn't you? If that is so, can't I insert that proper name anywhere I see the title "God"?


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The logos was divine but the logos is not God in all His fullness.
So when John states that "the logos was God", he really didn't mean that?


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The Messiah is God's "only begotten Son."
Yep.


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You said that it was clearly stated in John 1 where John said that the Word became flesh. Go to that passage (John 1:14) and show me where it says what you claim it says.
John 1:14 (NIV, NASB, AMP, NKJV)
And the Word became flesh...


Is that what you're looking for?
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  • And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one. [Zechariah 14:9]

  • Ignorance of the Identity of the One True God is not a valid reason to practice idolatry.
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