Quote:
Originally Posted by Esther
I was thinking recently of the thread where SE states that if you are not following Acts 2:38 you are lost.
I got to thinking about Jesus baptism. How was He baptized as the "forumla" of Acts 2:38 was yet to be given.
Was He baptized under repentance only, as John's baptism?
Just curious if anyone else has thought of this?
What and how did you come to your conclusion? |
John's baptism was of "repentence for the remission of sins." Jesus Himself was baptized to "fulfill all righteousness."
So, everyone who was baptized by John - in faith - received remission of sins. Jesus Himself, of course, did no sin but provided an example for all of us to follow. The disciples of Apollos in Acts were rebaptized by Paul to join them with the Christian community - not just so they could receive the remission of sins. They already had remsission by John's baptism.
Christian baptism in Jesus name accomplishes something more than John's baptism. What that "more" is exactly is honestly a little hazy to me. However, it's clearly not "more remission of sins" since John's baptism accomplished the same same thing.
I guess one point that we might observe is that it is not the phonetic pronounciation of "Jesus name" that accomplishes the remission of sins, since John's baptism accomplishes the same remission. It may also be that the early church practiced multiple baptisms on the pattern of the Jewish cleansings in the mikveh.