Quote:
Originally Posted by mizpeh
It was an unknown language to the one speaking. That was what is miraculous about it.
First off, the gift of prophecy and the gift of tongues are two different gifts.
And secondly, the entire chapter in 1 Corinthians 12 is about the gifts of the Spirit which Paul elaborates on.
It is in the book of Acts where we find what happens when believers receive the baptism of the Spirit. They speak in tongues. The apostles recognize an infilling when they hear someone speaking in tongues. It is the benchmark that God set in upon the very first outpouring of the Spirit.
So my question is...if you believe someone who speaks in tongues is doing so because they have received the gift of tongues spoken of in 1 Corinthians then why don't I speak in tongues years after I first spoke in tongues? Did God take this gift away from me? I spoke in tongues over 20 years ago and I haven't spoken in tongues since yet I have been blessed with wonderful visitations of God and I feel His presence in me and upon me often and usually when I don't expect it like at work or when I'm reading posts on AFF as well as in worship, when I pray, etc... I believe God has given me a different gift from the list in 1 Cor 12.
You've been taught differently, Michael, but others will say that speaking in tongues is the gift spoken of in 1 Cor 12 not an evidence of the baptism of the Spirit. My question to those who believe that, and Dan stated that that is what he believes, is "Did God take this gift away from me?" |
I don't know if God took a gift away from you, or not, Miz, only you know that. I highly doubt it, since the Bible says the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.
So, here are my follow up questions:
1.) IF the initial outpouring of the Holy Ghost in
Acts 2 was evidenced by "other" tongues, i.e., a language that was known, but not known to the speaker, then why shouldn't THAT be our benchmark for the evidence of receiving the HG today? If we really want to 'stay in context', shouldn't every infilling follow the signs of the first infilling to a tee?
2.) Can one receive the Holy Ghost WITHOUT speaking in tongues? There are certainly instances in the Book of Acts where folks DID receive the Spirit, and the Bible never stated that they spoke with tongues. Do you just assume that they did speak with tongues in every instance because it's recorded in some?
And, if so, is there a flaw with that assumption?