Quote:
Originally Posted by OnTheFritz
Again - you are stating opinion as fact. Why do we still acknowledge Matt 28:19 as part of the Bible that we hold as infallible? Should we remove it? Should we footnote it? Is it not understandable that many would find this an appropriate way to baptize?
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Who says everyone agree in your views of Bibliology? God's Word is infallible does not equate to texts and interpolations don't happen.
1 John 5:7 is a perfect example.
SHould we remove it only matters to the individual and what they perceive is right in the text. Does our belief die with that ONE text? No! Our is backed up the WHOLE of the Word. Does F,S,HS die? Yes! As what would you have to stand on? The whole point is to stand on something the rest of the Bible does not teach is faulty ground. Considering everything...... Yes, it is false teaching as I see nobody doing anything in the name of the F,S, HS anywhere! So how can I do something in which I see no example? That is def a leap of faith.