[JTTNMinistries]

Originally Posted by Arphaxad

Mathew 3:13 Than Jesus came from Galilee to John at the Jordan to be baptized by him.
14 And John tried to prevent Him, saying, "I need to be baptized by You, and are You coming to me?"
15 But Jesus answered and said to him,"Permit it to be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness." Than he allowed Him.

How did Jesus being baptized by John fulfill all righteousness?
Was Jesus baptized in the name of John?

Mark 1:4 John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

Jesus is without sin, so why be baptized for the remission of sin? (How would that fulfill all righteousness?)

John did not baptize in any formula concerning a name as far as Scripture says. As far as Jesus being without sin, I think everyone on this board agrees with that.

John's baptism was shocking because Jews did not have to get baptized but rather baptism was for proselytes converting to Judaism. In essence to need to be baptized showed that proselyte person was coming into covenant with God. John's baptism and later Christian baptism was demonstrating to the Jews that they were not truly in covenant with God simply because of their birth. I believe one reason Jesus as a man needed to be baptized to show that He was not basing his identity in covenant on only being a Jew but by performing and fulfilling all righteousness.

Just a thought.