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Originally Posted by missourimary
I don't think that Jesus would have used the parable of the rich man and Lazarus if parts of it were untrue. The rich man's soul was not asleep-he was in torment. Lazarus was not asleep, but rested in Abraham's bosom.
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I would be quick to agree that Jesus would never state something which was untrue, however, as you have asserted, the parable of the rich man and Lazarus is just that...... a parable, and therefore should not be construed as a depiction of an event which had already taken place at some previous moment. In fact, seeing that even Satan and all of the rebellious angels have not yet been cast into the lake of fire, then to assume that a certain rich man is presently there would represent a clear violation of the equality of justice which is truly what "righteousness" represents.
In addition to this, if it be true that a certain rich man was presently experiencing the torment of the flames of the lake of fire, then such punishment would represent a penalty which God (who is Spirit) had imposed, and that would clearly conflict with Jesus' statement recorded in
John 5:22 ("For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son").
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So I don't really have an answer, but I believe that at least some people will be at rest after their deaths, not asleep necessarily, but at peace from the troubles they faced while alive.
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Opinions which are not, nor cannot be fully substantiated by scriptural context, have no value whatsoever. Our beliefs, and the things which we publish as truth, must be based exclusively upon the sound word of the Lord. Should you tender scriptural support for your stated beliefs I would gladly consider their merits.