Just to throw a little more in the mix.....in the following, who is considered the underlined "HE" that they did not know, Jesus or only the Father?, or both?
1 Jn. 3:1 Behold what manner of love the
Father has bestowed on us, that we should be called children of God! Therefore the world does not know us, because
it did not know Him. 2 Beloved, now we are children of God; and it has not yet been revealed what we shall be, but we know that
when He is revealed, we shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as He is. 3 And everyone who has this hope in Him purifies himself, just as He is pure.
(We know Jesus was in the world....and the world knew Him not -Jn.1:10, yet Jesus addressed the people a few times, saying they also didnt know the Father-Jn. 16:3.....)
Also, in reading
Jn. 16, I found it interesting....Jesus said there would
come a time when He would tell plainly of the Father..
#1
When did that time come, and what did He "tell plainly"?
And in the very next verse, Jesus says in that day, you will ask in my name.
#2 Why did Jesus go on to say
in that day, you will ask in my name?
I feel its probably relative to the apostles answering Matt. 28:19, with Jesus name baptism thruout the book of Acts. And also possibly relative to the verse that was posted early-on, about "no one knows the Father, except the Son, and whosoever the Son reveals Him to.."
Jn. 16:25 “These things I have spoken to you in figurative language; but
the time is coming when I will no longer speak to you in figurative language, but I will tell you plainly about the Father. 26
In that day you will ask in My name, and I do not say to you that I shall pray the Father for you