Quote:
Originally Posted by Pressing-On
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- It is evident that "speaking in tongues" is the sign - Acts 2:33; Acts 11:15. These two scriptures, alone, would be enough to stand on as support and evidence of that fact.
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Can you prove that the experience you call "speaking in tongues" is the same identical experience to that which the apostles experienced in
Acts 2? Remember, you stated that this is a "fact." Prove it.
I know that this challenge will generate some hearsay testimonies, but it has never been demonstrated on even one single occasion since New Year's Eve 1899 until this present day that any of the "speaking in tongues" in the modern day Pentecostal Revival has ever included anything like the experience and the languages described in
Acts 2:4-11.
Not once. Ever.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Pressing-On
David is calling me a liar because I am a 3-stepper. That means my husband is also a liar. Who would have thunk! LOL! Pointing fingers at the UPCI becomes pretty moot at that point. I mean, really! LOL!
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Do you mean "David" as in me? I see that I appear to be the only one with a "David" in his user name that has posted in this thread so far.
I called you a liar because you are a "Three Stepper?" You're hallucinating badly now.
When did I call you a liar?
That's the problem with your methodology, IMHO. You are so certain that you are correct that anyone who dares to question - not necessarily your doctrine,
but questions your certainty - draws this "ARE YOU CALLING ME A LIAR!?!" type of response.
Grow up.
Now, prove to me that you are
unquestionably right on this issue by producing verifiable evidence that the scene in
Acts 2:4-11, has ever been repeated in a 20th or 21st century Pentecostal meeting. Prove to me that this is a fact, as you have said it is.