Quote:
Originally Posted by Pressing-On
I'll give you a short answer, since we have discussed this ad nauseam.
Acts 2:33. " Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear." |
That was what the people in Jerusalem "
saw and heard." They heard:
Acts 2:8 -
And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
Have you ever seen or heard
that?
I haven't. I have heard people claim it to be so on a couple of occasions, but I have never heard it, seen it nor have I ever seen anyone even attempt to prove it.
Therefore - How can you say that your experience of "speaking in other tongues as the Spirit gives the utterance" is the same experience as
Acts 2:4 when it clearly is NOT the same experience?
And, being "nauseated" by the past discussions on this topic isn't the same as giving an answer. I have NEVER received an answer for this question from anyone - ever.
How can you (or any Three Stepper) claim that an experience that you have never witnessed is the bona fide and essential "evidence" of salvation?"
Going by
your own testimony on this one -
NO ONE HAS EVER BEEN SAVED since the Day of Pentecost, 30 A.D.