[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by coksiw

I have a hard time believing Jesus quoted something in Greek to the chief priests and scribes at the doors of Jerusalem, or to any Jewish crowd in Palestine.

Why?

Originally Posted by coksiw

I didn't say that. Keep your laugh to yourself. "Translating" is not only from manuscript to manuscript, but in this case I'm obviously saying it is from Jesus spoken words to written Greek.

Well actually you did.

Originally Posted by coksiw

What likely happened was that the Gospel writer translated it from Aramaic to Greek, which in turn, attests the LXX "translation/interpretation" of the Hebrew text in that verse, or that the LXX has a variant reading we don't have, and it is what Matthew testified Jesus quoted.

I'd love to hear you explain this to Rabbi Tovia Singer.