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Old 08-10-2017, 08:19 AM
JoeBandy JoeBandy is offline
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Join Date: May 2017
Posts: 672
Re: Do all speak with tongues?

Originally Posted by houston View Post
Hello, Amanah,

I know all that. What I'm looking for is where Paul made a distinction. I have a friend who is ex AOG. He is now a Reformed Baptst. I asked him about the accounts in Acts where people received the Holy Ghost with initial evidence. This is what he told me. He stated that (in the Greek) the text (Acts) DOES require evidence, which would be glossolalia. My mind was blown.

But, he stated (position I currently hold) that the evidence was a sign to the Jews that God was saving Gentiles. That is what we see in Acts. Even Peter (I think) stated something like "they received the Holy Ghost as we did in the beginning." I paraphrase.

It looks like, to me, that I may be making full circle in my beliefs. I have already posted in another thread that I want to come home (Epley would be thrilled). But, I feel that as I currently stand, I do not belong.

Maybe I'll wait it out and see if I make full circle before I find a church to attend.

Who knows. Maybe some day my dream of being an itinerant preacher in the Apostolic and Pentecostal movement WILL come to pass. *shrugs*
1 Corinthians 14:22 IMO adds to the question. Can someone explain the sign of tongues here ? Also who is the believer and the unbeliever??
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