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Old 08-10-2017, 09:12 AM
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Pressing-On Pressing-On is offline
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Join Date: Mar 2007
Posts: 47,806
Re: Do all speak with tongues?

Originally Posted by houston View Post
Ok. So if all do, then your stance is that Paul was differentiating a gift from the gift, correct?

I was waiting for you to comment so I can say, "I know that you have prayed for me, so this is all your fault."

Right, you don't want me to pray for you. LOL! And for the record, I know what I feel when I pray for you and I know why I never stop praying for you. God just won't let you go.

Yes, my stance is that Paul was differentiating between the initial infilling from the gifts that we operate having that initial infilling.

The reason I believe in the initial infilling, which is accompanied by a sign, i.e. speaking in tongues, is that Jesus sent the disciples to the upper room to wait for that infilling. All of those waiting in the upper room were, indeed, filled with the baptism of the Holy Ghost and began to speak in tongues. The main point being - every person that obeyed what Jesus told them to do were filled with the Holy Ghost, speaking in other tongues.

One other matter of importance is that the Jews who heard the 120 speaking in tongues were amazed and wanted to know what it was all about. Peter tells them that it was the fulfilled prophecy - "I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh."

Now, the gifts of the spirit are addressed in I Corinthians 12, but notice in verse 1. I will have this in the NLV - " 2 I write to Godís church in the city of Corinth. I write to those who belong to Christ Jesus and to those who are set apart by Him and made holy."

He is writing to a people who were already saved, filled and made holy (if they continue in the faith, of course).
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