[Tithesmeister]

Originally Posted by Esaias

It is claimed by many that the Biblically commanded tithe was ONLY obligatory upon Israelites living in the land of Israel.

Is this correct?

I believe so.

Can it be proven from the Bible?

Let me take a crack at it. Chapter 12 of Deuteronomy,
verse one says . . .

Bible, King James Version

Deut.12 Verses 1

[1] These are the statutes and judgments, which ye shall observe to do in the land, which the LORD God of thy fathers giveth thee to possess it, all the days that ye live upon the earth.

What are these?

They are statutes (laws).

Where are they to observe or do these laws?

In the land.

These statutes were to be observed in the land that God had given them. After verse one, Moses begins to list the statutes that they are to follow in the land. In verse six we encounter the tithe.

Bible, King James Version

Deut.12 Verses 6

[6] And thither ye shall bring your burnt offerings, and your sacrifices, and your tithes, and heave offerings of your hand, and your vows, and your freewill offerings, and the firstlings of your herds and of your flocks:

Does this mean that the Israelites were to ONLY observe the statutes that follow verse one in the land?

Well . . . it appears that way to me. If God had wanted them to follow the statutes wherever they happened to be, why would He say to observe to do them "in the land"?

What do you think Esaias?






A factoid to keep in mind: the rabbis taught that Israelites living outside Israel were required to pay the "tithe for the poor".

Could you support this "factoid" with scripture, or even otherwise?

I am not aware of any scripture that supports this. Please enlighten me.