Jewish Feasts

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Are believers lost if they don't honour their parents? What if they are thieves? Interestingly, God put the sabbath commandment in front of the honouring parents or no stealing commandments...

Speaking about the order the sabbath commandment was given, it is unique. It is fourth. Between the first three that refer to God and the last six that refer to man. In fact, 6 is man's number. There's a message in that.

[Truthseeker]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Are believers lost if they don't honour their parents? What if they are thieves? Interestingly, God put the sabbath commandment in front of the honouring parents or no stealing commandments...

Is that a yes?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Truthseeker

Is that a yes?

Sabbath breaking is a sin because sin is transgression of the law of God. Adultery is a sin because sin is transgression of the law.

If something is NOT a sin then it is not a violation of God's commandments by definition. Eating deer meat in itself is not a sin because there is no commandment against it.

If however a person's conscience doubts whether an action is sinful or not, then "to him it is sin because it is not of faith and whatsoever is not of faith is sin." Further he is damned because he partakes NOT BY FAITH - which shows that lack of faith will bring damnation to a believer...

The converse however is NOT true, that something expressly forbidden by God in his word can become unsinful merely because the person believes it is not sinful. Jesus condemned the pharisees for things they believed were the will of God which in practice made the written command of God of no effect... kind of like how sunday traditions or antinomianism makes the fourth commandment of no effect...

[KeptByTheWord]

Esaias, what does this verse mean to you?

Romans 10:4 "For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth."


And how about this one?

Romans 13:10 "Love worketh no ill to his neighbor: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law."

[Sean]

A thought for the thread.

Tha Law was abolished for the born again saint only, but not for the sinner. The sinner must be born again to get out from the Law and its wrath/judgements.

[Truthseeker]

Originally Posted by Sean

A thought for the thread.

Tha Law was abolished for the born again saint only, but not for the sinner. The sinner must be born again to get out from the Law and its wrath/judgements.

Wasn't law only for Jews?

[houston]

Originally Posted by Truthseeker

Wasn't law only for Jews?

yes

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Truthseeker

Wasn't law only for Jews?

No, for all men. But to the Gentiles that never converted to the Law of Moses, there is a form of the Law of Moses built into all men. It is the unwritten law....
Rom 2:14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:

15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;



The reason that John the Baptist used the Law on Herod was because Herod was under this Law folks...Herod was a Gentile and John used the Law on him...https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=...77648437,d.cGE

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Sean

No, for all men. But to the Gentiles that never converted to the Law of Moses, there is a form of the Law of Moses built into all men. It is the unwritten law....
Rom 2:14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:

15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;



The reason that John the Baptist used the Law on Herod was because Herod was under this Law folks...Herod was a Gentile and John used the Law on him...https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=...77648437,d.cGE

Incorrect:

Romans 1 taught how gentile heathens were plainly sinful. The Jews boasted over themselves due to that overt sinfulness of the Gentiles. Paul then nailed the Jews, too, in chapters 2 - 3. And to prove the Jews were just as guilty as the gentiles, he quoted their own law.

Rom 3:9-18 KJV What then? are we [JEWS] better than they [GENTILES]? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; (10) As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: (11) There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God. (12) They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one. (13) Their throat is an open sepulchre; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips: (14) Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness: (15) Their feet are swift to shed blood: (16) Destruction and misery are in their ways: (17) And the way of peace have they not known: (18) There is no fear of God before their eyes.

And then after reading from LAW, he said:

Rom 3:19 KJV Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.

He would not have said that if Law was for all mankind. He would have applied those passages in Romans 3:10-18 to all mankind. But context shows that since Romans 1 shows Gentiles are sinners due to creation that reveals a creator robbing them of excuse to be innocent in their sins, and then proceeded to speak to Jews in Chapters 2 and 3, and citing LAW to prove the Jews are guilty too, like Gentiles, then he is saying LAW WAS FOR JEWS, in order to say the Jews are just as guilty of sin ans Gentiles. And he highlighted that discrepancy of Law for Jews by saying LAW IS WRITTEN TO THEM UNDER THE LAW, implying gentiles WERE NOT UNDER LAW.

The way every mouth is stopped, is for Gentiles to not be the only ones whose mouths are stopped due to their sin, but Jews too BECAUSE LAW SAID JEWS were sinful and wicked in all the verses Paul quoted from Law. If Paul had not quoted LAW to prove JEWS ARE SINNERS, TOO, then Paul would not say all the world must shut their mouths in defense of themselves. But since He quoted Law, not only the gentiles mouths are shut, but now the Jews' are as well! That means LAW WAS FOR JEWS. Not Gentiles.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Sean

A thought for the thread.

Tha Law was abolished for the born again saint only, but not for the sinner. The sinner must be born again to get out from the Law and its wrath/judgements.

I addressed this before, but I disagree. Law was for them under the law. In the context of Romans 2 - 3 that was Israel. You once said gentiles are a law unto themselves. That is far cry from being under Mosaic law itself, though.

Sabbath day is from sundown to sundown at the seventh day. Folks living in northern Canada close to the pole would have a several week sabbath if it was a global issue. That alone proves sabbath is not meant for everyone on the earth.