Jewish Feasts

[Sean]

For anyone interested, I am proposing that the Law is still a "schoolmaster" for EVERYONE, even today, to lead us to Christ.

The following questions may provoke some thought on the subject....


Romans 7

7 Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?(Written in the present tense at least 10 years after Calvary) Was this speaking about Jewish men ONLY, or all men?.


2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.(Present tense) Is this about Jewish women ONLY or all women?

3 So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man. (present tense) Is this Law only for Jews only or for all mankind today?


If it does not apply to Gentiles today, then will they be judged by it?, or can we just watch the Jews suffer for it?

If it DOES apply to Gentiles today, then the non born again Gentiles ARE under the Law.

[Esaias]

What I see on this thread is a general lack of understanding what the simple word "law" means. Heads up - it depends on the context. The word is used to mean the pentateuchal writings, the commandments of God, the OT writings excepting the prophets, the OT writings in general, the Old Covenant, the teaching of Jesus, the teachings of the Pharisees, etc.

Context is important. Otherwise massive confusion and chaos result in errors compounding upon one another.


Here's a good primer:

https://www.biblegateway.com/resourc...-Obey-Gods-Law

http://rcg.org/articles/lg.html

http://reformed-theology.org/ice/new...e/be.05.79.htm

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Esaias

What I see on this thread is a general lack of understanding what the simple word "law" means. Heads up - it depends on the context. The word is used to mean the pentateuchal writings, the commandments of God, the OT writings excepting the prophets, the OT writings in general, the Old Covenant, the teaching of Jesus, the teachings of the Pharisees, etc.

Context is important. Otherwise massive confusion and chaos result in errors compounding upon one another.



May I ask brother, are you a Hebrew Roots believer?


Here's a good primer:

https://www.biblegateway.com/resourc...-Obey-Gods-Law

http://rcg.org/articles/lg.html

http://reformed-theology.org/ice/new...e/be.05.79.htm

.

[Esaias]

A saint cannot fall into sin unless the law is valid as defining obedience to God. Sin = transgression of the law. Thus for a saint to "fall into sin" means nothing else than for a saint to transgress the law. The two phrases mean the same thing.

Under grace and by faith we establish the law, through the spirit we fulfill the righteousness outlined by the law, being under grace we are forbidden to sin (break God's commandments), we know we love God if we keep his comandments, being under grace means sin (law breaking) shall not rule our lives, and neither circumcision nor uncircumcision matters but keeping God's commandments does.

[Sean]

Keep in mind folks, I dont believe in "partial Law"...its ALL or NOTHING...

3 For I testify again to every man that is circumcised, that he is a debtor to do the whole law.

[Esaias]

I am not a "hebrew roots" person because "hebrew roots" seems to be a code word for talmudist Christian. The talmud is the teaching of the sons of hell and we are instructed by Christ to beware of it.

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Esaias

I am not a "hebrew roots" person because "hebrew roots" seems to be a code word for talmudist Christian. The talmud is the teaching of the sons of hell and we are instructed by Christ to beware of it.

Thanks bro. I like to know what folks believe. I didnt think so, but I I dont know what many folks believe here yet.

I dont like to assume stuff about the brethren.(I think its the Moses pic bro.....lol)