Divorce and remarriage

[james34]

When Jesus said “From the beginning it was not so” , what did this mean?

I always say it’s hard to find someone in adultery , because those who are generally make up their own non biblical definition.

[Originalist]

Originally Posted by james34

When Jesus said “From the beginning it was not so” , what did this mean?

I always say it’s hard to find someone in adultery , because those who are generally make up their own non biblical definition.

Nobody denies what "from the beginning it was not so" means, except you. You added your own spin that divorce even for adultery was not permitted before the Law. But you offered no proof.

[james34]

Originally Posted by Originalist

Nobody denies what "from the beginning it was not so" means, except you. You added your own spin that divorce even for adultery was not permitted before the Law. But you offered no proof.

where was divorce permitted before the law?

[Originalist]

Originally Posted by james34

where was divorce permitted before the law?

That is the point. You are building a doctrine from silence. You emphatically stated that divorce, even for adultery, was forbidden before the Law, and coffee no proof whatsoever from the scriptures. Now you want me to prove it was? I'm not the one making any pre-law claims here, you are.

[james34]

Originally Posted by Originalist

That is the point. You are building a doctrine from silence. You emphatically stated that divorce, even for adultery, was forbidden before the Law, and coffee no proof whatsoever from the scriptures. Now you want me to prove it was? I'm not the one making any pre-law claims here, you are.

!!!Hardly from silence!!!
Jesus said, Moses allowed a writ of divorcement.

Why do you from silence, assume Moses "allowed" what was already in existence?
If the "allowance" of a writ of divorcement had to be given, then it stands to reason that another way must have been in place from the beginning. The context makes this obvious. Do you care to comment on what that way might have been or what it was not?

[Esaias]

Pre-Moses: Abraham put away Hagar. Sarah had demanded it, and God allowed it. And of Abraham it was said by God:

Genesis 26:5 KJV
Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

And again:

Genesis 18:19 KJV
For I know him, that he will command his children and his household after him, and they shall keep the way of the Lord, to do justice and judgment; that the Lord may bring upon Abraham that which he hath spoken of him.

[james34]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Pre-Moses: Abraham put away Hagar. Sarah had demanded it, and God allowed it. And of Abraham it was said by God:

Genesis 26:5 KJV
Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

And again:

Genesis 18:19 KJV
For I know him, that he will command his children and his household after him, and they shall keep the way of the Lord, to do justice and judgment; that the Lord may bring upon Abraham that which he hath spoken of him.

So the handmaiden of Sarah is counted the same as a wife. They are both wives, lawfully?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by james34

So the handmaiden of Sarah is counted the same as a wife. They are both wives, lawfully?

Genesis 16:3 KJV
And Sarai Abram's wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife.

[Originalist]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Genesis 16:3 KJV
And Sarai Abram's wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife.

BBAAHHAAHAA!!!!

[james34]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Genesis 16:3 KJV
And Sarai Abram's wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife.

Thanks for pointing that out.