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01-09-2018, 06:21 PM
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Re: James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa
So missionaries are supposed to teach people in other countries how to speak 17th century English? With 17th century English definitions?
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No, all translations in foreign languages must compare to the KJV in meanings as close as possible.
The KJV is the go-to Bible for the English speaking world, and the comparative Bible for all the other languages.
It always has been since it's inception and always will be.
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01-09-2018, 06:21 PM
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Re: James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?
The KJV version issue is limited to English. Most languages only have one translation to chose from.
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01-09-2018, 06:23 PM
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Re: James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
No, all translations in foreign languages must compare to the KJV in meanings as close as possible.
The KJV is the go-to Bible for the English speaking world, and the comparative Bible for all the other languages.
It always has been since it's inception and always will be.
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I see so other translations are translated from a KJV Bible instead of the Hebrew and Greek?
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"all experience hath shewn, that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable, than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed."
~Declaration of Independence
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01-09-2018, 06:24 PM
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Re: James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Scott Pitta
The KJV version issue is limited to English. Most languages only have one translation to chose from.
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Of course, the KJV translators didn't influence the Luther Bible which is the KJV of old school German Christians.
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"all experience hath shewn, that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable, than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed."
~Declaration of Independence
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01-09-2018, 06:32 PM
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Jesus is the only Lord God
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Re: James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
No, all translations in foreign languages must compare to the KJV in meanings as close as possible.
The KJV is the go-to Bible for the English speaking world, and the comparative Bible for all the other languages.
It always has been since it's inception and always will be.
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So all the bibles prior to the KJV are null and void?
And the Chinese or German bible should be compared to the KJV for accuracy?
I guess Paul did really speak KJV english. In fact, KJV english is what is spoken in heaven... 
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...Testifying both to the Jews, and also to the Greeks, repentance toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ...(Acts 20:21)
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01-09-2018, 06:40 PM
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Re: James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?
Quote:
Originally Posted by TGBTG
So all the bibles prior to the KJV are null and void?
And the Chinese or German bible should be compared to the KJV for accuracy?
I guess Paul did really speak KJV english. In fact, KJV english is what is spoken in heaven... |
Germans still use the Luther Bible. Luther Bible predates the KJV. Also the Greek Orthodox Church uses a Bible which predates the KJV. The rest of the world doesn't share the KJV Onlyists' view.
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"all experience hath shewn, that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable, than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed."
~Declaration of Independence
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01-09-2018, 06:43 PM
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Re: James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa
I see so other translations are translated from a KJV Bible instead of the Hebrew and Greek?
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Not what I meant.
Their final comparison before printing should be the KJV.
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01-09-2018, 06:45 PM
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Banned
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Re: James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Scott Pitta
The KJV version issue is limited to English. Most languages only have one translation to chose from.
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The final comparison is the KJV.
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01-09-2018, 06:47 PM
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Re: James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?
I don't read Spanish, but a Hispanic friend of mine said there is a comparable version in Spanish. He likes it and understands the side by side comparisons nicely
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01-09-2018, 06:49 PM
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Re: James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sean
Not what I meant.
Their final comparison before printing should be the KJV.
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So, the KJV sets precedence over the Greek and Hebrew for other language translations of the Bible. Therefore they would be actually translating from the KJV into another language since the KJV is the standard one must line up to and not the original Bible languages.
Thank you for playing.
Tell him what he has won Don Pardo
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"all experience hath shewn, that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable, than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed."
~Declaration of Independence
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