James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Steven what do you mean when you say "pure reformation Bible?"

[Steven Avery]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Germans still use the Luther Bible. Luther Bible predates the KJV. Also the Greek Orthodox Church uses a Bible which predates the KJV.

The German Bible accepted the correction of the heavenly witnesses.

The Greek Orthodox accepted Reformation Bible corrections like making sure that the heavenly witnesses and Acts 8:37 are included in their editions.

Steven

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Reina Valera went through its changes since the Oso Bible. We read from KJV, the Spanish RV, HB, and the Segond. Differences come up, which aren't as bad as one would think. I like the Romans 3 in the KJV, because it is what is in the Greek. The Louis Segond leaves out the longer portion in vere one, but the RV keeps it in, but says not to conform to the flesh, but conform to the spirit.

If you piece together your favorite verses in a book, then you will have an infallible Bible to preach from.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Reina Valera went through its changes since the Oso Bible. We read from KJV, the Spanish RV, HB, and the Segond. Differences come up, which aren't as bad as one would think. I like the Romans 3 in the KJV, because it is what is in the Greek. The Louis Segond leaves out the longer portion in vere one, but the RV keeps it in, but says not to conform to the flesh, but conform to the spirit.

Is the RV in the imperative? Or nominative? I mean, does it say "do not conform to the flesh" etc, or does it say "those who do not conform to the flesh" etc? My Castillian is rusty.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Is the RV in the imperative? Or nominative? I mean, does it say "do not conform to the flesh" etc, or does it say "those who do not conform to the flesh" etc? My Castillian is rusty.

I think it says "those who do not walk conformed to the flesh" etc?? I see "andan" in there...

[Steven Avery]

Originally Posted by Sean

I don't read Spanish, but a Hispanic friend of mine said there is a comparable version in Spanish. He likes it and understands the side by side comparisons nicely

Yes, I think there are three major Spanish editions that are rather excellent Bibles, one from the early 1600s, one from the early 1900s and the recent RVG.

Steven

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Steven Avery

The German Bible accepted the correction of the heavenly witnesses.

The Greek Orthodox accepted Reformation Bible corrections like making sure that the heavenly witnesses and Acts 8:37 are included in their editions.

Steven

Luther translated from Erasmus second edition of the TR which didn't have the comma. When did the Luther Bible get the upgrade? Also please explain how the Orthodox Church accepted the corrections and how that came about> The Byzantine TR also doesn't have the comma. I believe the heavenly witness is important, because it is found in the most used Greek manuscripts.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Steven Avery

Yes, I think there are three major Spanish editions that are rather excellent Bibles, one from the early 1600s, one from the early 1900s and the recent RVG.

Steven

I would hazard a guess that the 17th century Spanish text would be superior if for no other reason than I suspect Spanish has degraded just as English has in these last 100 years or so...

[Steven Avery]

Originally Posted by TGBTG

You're saying instead of learning the original language, a Chinese translator must first learn ENGLISH before translating the bible to their native tongue.

The educated translator likely already is quite competent in English, since it is used all over the world for science, literature, culture, as well as Biblical studies.

My brother goes to math conferences all over the world, Hungary, Israel, China and much more, and the common language is English. Greek and Aramaic and Hebrew are localized languages, and Latin lacks a populace.

Steven

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Luther translated from Erasmus second edition of the TR which didn't have the comma. When did the Luther Bible get the upgrade? Also please explain how the Orthodox Church accepted the corrections and how that came about> The Byzantine TR also doesn't have the comma. I believe the heavenly witness is important, because it is found in the most used Greek manuscripts.

1Jn 5:7 ὅτι τρεῖς εἰσιν οἱ μαρτυροῦντες ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ, ὁ Πατήρ, ὁ Λόγος και τὸ ῞Αγιον Πνεύμα, καὶ οὗτοι οι τρεῖς ἕν εἰσι·
1Jn 5:8 καὶ τρεῖς εἰσιν οι μαρτυροῦντες ἐν τῇ γῇ, τὸ Πνεῦμα καὶ τὸ ὕδωρ καὶ τὸ αἷμα, καὶ οἱ τρεῖς εἰς τὸ ἕν εἰσιν.

(That's the 1904 Patriarchal edition)