James Strong, KJV, Redefinitions of words?

[Evang.Benincasa]

I asked a poster quite a few times to please show how James Strong redefined Greek words in his Concordance, Greek, Hebrew Dictionary. The posts which contained the questions were basically dodged and danced around. Yet, this subject is an interesting one. What are dictionaries, what is Lexicography?

Did Professor Miguel Civil understand the cuneiform tablets? Was his book on Mesopotamian Lexicography filled from cover to cover with his guesses? How does a Phd today differ from the scholars who worked together to translate, and interpret the 1611 AV? Did James Strong "redefine" Hebrew, Chaldean, and Greek in his Strong's Dictionary? If he did, then how did he do it? Did Jean Francois Champollion just guess at the pictographs (hieroglyphics) on the Rosetta Stone? Ashurbanipal's library, did scholars just make up what the tablets actually contained? Eliezer Ben-Yehuda & the Revival of Hebrew? If ancient languages could only be understood by men living in the 1600s, then how did Eliezer Ben-Yehuda use a dead liturgical language into the one spoken today? Can a Greek living today read the Textus Receptus? Could they understand the first century Greek? While some Greek words would be no longer in use today, the majority of the Greek used in the TR is still in use today. Where's the problem?