Was Joseph going to Divorce Mary?

[Sam]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

Pressin On.. in the scriptures a man had to PUT AWAY his wife..... or DIVORCE her.. this is not a play on words.. he had Jewish Law behind him and he would have PUT HER AWAY.. DIVORCED HER to be faithful to the Law of his people...... of course he loved her... but he was not willing to take her in fornication.. it took an ANGEL to change his mind... had he been planning to keep her it would not have taken an ANGEL to assure him there was no fornication

I don't think he had to divorce her. I think he could have but also could have chosen to go ahead and marry her and let people think he was the father.
She was his espoused wife by legal contract if I understand the customs of the time and to terminate the engagement would have required legal action, a document called a "get" or "writing of divorcement."

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

Can somone please quit making it personal.. quit slurring a man personally... and simply respond to the text and tell me where I'm wrong

Tell me

Was Mary considered Josephs wife?
Was Josephs Marys husband?
Did Joseph believe she committed fornication?
Was he going to divorce her privatly, he had to DIVORCE her because as I have shown God considered them husband and wife already upon engagement. To no longer be considered such he would have had to have divorced her.

Contractually they were married. Parents and couples back them made contractions to be married. Only the man could break it if he found his wive was not a virgin as promised

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Contractually they were married. Parents and couples back them made contractions to be married. Only the man could break it if he found his wive was not a virgin as promised

and thus giving credence to JESUS command.. that a marriage could end because of FORNICATION only.....

if she was not a virgin she was guilty of fornication

Contractually they were married? Every tried to get a marriage annulled? First question.. has the marriage been consumated.. if NO.. annulment granted... they were not married but they were considered Husband and Wife... with no consumation you have no coming together.. no two becoming one and you have NO MARRIAGE

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Sam

I don't think he had to divorce her. I think he could have but also could have chosen to go ahead and marry her and let people think he was the father.
She was his espoused wife by legal contract if I understand the customs of the time and to terminate the engagement would have required legal action, a document called a "get" or "writing of divorcement."

Right, Sam, so how could he have done that "privately"?

Originally Posted by Sam

I don't think he had to divorce her. I think he could have but also could have chosen to go ahead and marry her and let people think he was the father.
She was his espoused wife by legal contract if I understand the customs of the time and to terminate the engagement would have required legal action, a document called a "get" or "writing of divorcement."

Your exactly right Sam... they had a Katubah., they have a promise and upon engagement in the eyes of God you are Husband and Wife.... even before you are married

[SDG]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

Pressin On.. in the scriptures a man had to PUT AWAY his wife..... or DIVORCE her.. this is not a play on words.. he had Jewish Law behind him and he would have PUT HER AWAY.. DIVORCED HER to be faithful to the Law of his people...... of course he loved her... but he was not willing to take her in fornication.. it took an ANGEL to change his mind... had he been planning to keep her it would not have taken an ANGEL to assure him there was no fornication

How could he put her away, divorce for fornication (as you define it) ... which he would have to as her betrothed in the marriage contract .... if she was impregnated while she is legally his wife ... (See Luke 1)?

Had she been sexually unfaithful it would have been as his pledged wife. She did not get pregnant before but after.

Therefore, she would not have had unfaithful pre-marital relations as you define it ...but rather he'd be putting her away for ADULTERY.

Pornea again ... as you choose to ignore deals w/ sexual immorality of all stripes... and unfaithfulness.

Joseph was a 'just' man (verse 19). That is, he lived under the law of God. His obvious question here would have been, 'What does the law of God say?' Answer: (see Deuteronomy 24:1): he had to put Mary away. According to Jewish custom, a betrothal could only be terminated by 'divorce'. Indeed, Mary should have been stoned.

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

Right, Sam, so how could he have done that "privately"?

There are many reasons.. perhaps their courtship was not as known as might think in our minds.. perhaps it was not public knowledge it could not have been for him to put her away privatly

[Sam]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

Your exactly right Sam... they had a Katubah., they have a promise and upon engagement in the eyes of God you are Husband and Wife.... even before you are married

in the eyes of God or according to custom at the time?

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

How could he put her away, divorce for fornication (as you define it) ... which he would have to as her betrothed in the marriage contract .... if she was impregnated while she is legally his wife ... (See Luke 1)?

Had she been sexually unfaithful it would have been as his pledged wife. She did not get pregnant before but after.

Therefore, she would not have had unfaithful pre-marital relations as you define it ...but rather he'd be putting her away for ADULTERY.

Joseph was a 'just' man (verse 19). That is, he lived under the law of God. His obvious question here would have been, 'What does the law of God say?' Answer: (see Deuteronomy 24:1): he had to put Mary away. According to Jewish custom, a betrothal could only be terminated by 'divorce'. Indeed, Mary should have been stoned.

and the point remains.. that when Jesus said a man can only divorce his wife for fornication.. he meant exactly what he said... just look at Joseph and Mary...

and no her affair after the engagement would have been fornication not adultery because they had not become one in the eyes of God yet... they had no consummated the marriage and though they carried the title husband and wife,, they did not carry the consummation and therefore they were still 2 separate individuals.

So again any infidelity would have been fornication until the completion of the marriage.. after the marriage it would have been adultery

[SDG]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

Your exactly right Sam... they had a Katubah., they have a promise and upon engagement in the eyes of God you are Husband and Wife.... even before you are married

Once again proving that being pregnant by another while husband and wife ... legally would be ...????