Was Joseph going to Divorce Mary?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

and thus giving credence to JESUS command.. that a marriage could end because of FORNICATION only.....

if she was not a virgin she was guilty of fornication

Contractually they were married? Every tried to get a marriage annulled? First question.. has the marriage been consumated.. if NO.. annulment granted... they were not married but they were considered Husband and Wife... with no consumation you have no coming together.. no two becoming one and you have NO MARRIAGE

You are trying to compare modern day marriages with semitic cultures 2000 years ago? If they were not really married then he could not divorce her.

[Sam]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

Right, Sam, so how could he have done that "privately"?

She could have been sent away to another area where she was not known to raise the child as a single mother.

Originally Posted by Sam

in the eyes of God or according to custom at the time?

No it would be in the eyes of God because it was the ANGEL OF GOD from the PRESENCE OF GOD that recognized them and Husband and Wife

[SDG]

Sir ... you ignore the legal ramifications ...

One cannot get a divorce if not legally married.

Hello !!!!

You choose to throw away original language ... historical and contexual evidences in lieu of your modern day Webster's dictionary definition of fornication ... when it's PORNEA ... in the Greek ... and that encompasses many sexual sins ... including adultery.

You have no legs to stand on.

[SDG]

Originally Posted by praxeas

you are trying to compare modern day marriages with semitic cultures 2000 years ago? if they were not really married then he could not divorce her.

duh!!!!

He would have divorced her for being unfaithful to the marriage contract ... Adultery.

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

Sir ... you ignore the legal ramifications ...

One cannot get a divorce if not legally married.

Hello !!!!

You choose to throw away original language ... historical and contexual evidences in lieu of your modern day Webster's dictionary definition of fornication ... when it's PORNEA ... in the Greek ... and that encompasses many sexual sins ... including adultery.

You have no legs to stand on.

Not true, I just dont need to create legs for my situation

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Sam

She could have been sent away to another area where she was not known to raise the child as a single mother.

Oh, I see. Boy, God sure does bring his stuff around in the most, I can't think of the word, sometimes it's like - confusion. lol

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

duh!!!!

He would have divorced her for being unfaithful to the marriage contract ... Adultery.

I think this is where you get to spit. I saw the men make points and then spit on Fiddler on the Roof.

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

duh!!!!

He would have divorced her for being unfaithful to the marriage contract ... Adultery.

Wrong yet again.... he would have divorced her for PRE MARITAL sex because the marriage had not been consumated.... and the contract for marriage would have been violated and as such... a bill of divorcement to end the contract would have come forth..... and thus before he ever consumated the marred he could have ended the marriage

[SDG]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

Not true, I just dont need to create legs for my situation

Sir ... I've got strong hermeneutics to prove this ... and believed it prior to my situation ...

You choose to lay aside whatever theological foundations you've learned as a student to prove your pet doctrine ... and that sir ... is deplorable if you want to teach this .....