Seconds of Pre Embryonic Life of Jesus Christ?

[TK Burk]

John 1:1....In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John 1:14....And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

The idea that God couldn't "fit inside Jesus" is as silly as the medieval argument on how many angels could dance on the head of a pin.

God is a Spirit. As such, He does not occupy space.

God "filled" the area of the Most Holy Place in the Tabernacle and in the First Temple, so He most certainly could "fit inside Jesus."

Sean, what a ridiculous thing to say.

[TK Burk]

Colossians 1:15-20
15....Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
16....For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
17....And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
18....And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.
19....For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell;
20....And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven.

"Image of God" and "through His blood" speaks of Jesus before His resurrection. Notice verse 19 has "all fulness" dwelling in Jesus at that time.

When Paul wrote this epistle, there was no "Colossians 2". Instead, chapter 1 went right into chapter 2. So, the "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily"....(Colossians 2:9) continued what was said about the "all fulness dwell" in Colossians 1:9. Thus, the "fullness" in Christ was before Calvary, not after the resurrection.

Sean, you act as if the "Godhead" is a physical entity. Maybe a gathering of Deities? It is a term that refers to God's nature. Thus, the "fulness of the Godhead" refers to the "fulness of God's nature." We know Jesus manifested that trait before His death, thus He had all that fullness of God's nature before His resurrection.

John 1:15-18
15....John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me.
16....And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.
17....For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
18....No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

Verse 16's "fullness" is the same "fullness" as found in Colossians 1:19 and 2:9.

Pre-crucifixion, Sean, not post-resurrection.

[Sean]

Originally Posted by TK Burk

Colossians 1:15-20
15....Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
16....For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
17....And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
18....And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.
19....For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell;
20....And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven.

"Image of God" and "through His blood" speaks of Jesus before His resurrection. Notice verse 19 has "all fulness" dwelling in Jesus at that time.

When Paul wrote this epistle, there was no "Colossians 2". Instead, chapter 1 went right into chapter 2. So, the "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily"....(Colossians 2:9) continued what was said about the "all fulness dwell" in Colossians 1:9. Thus, the "fullness" in Christ was before Calvary, not after the resurrection.

Sean, you act as if the "Godhead" is a physical entity. Maybe a gathering of Deities? It is a term that refers to God's nature. Thus, the "fulness of the Godhead" refers to the "fulness of God's nature." We know Jesus manifested that trait before His death, thus He had all that fullness of God's nature before His resurrection.

John 1:15-18
15....John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me.
16....And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.
17....For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
18....No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

Verse 16's "fullness" is the same "fullness" as found in Colossians 1:19 and 2:9.

Pre-crucifixion, Sean, not post-resurrection.

Right, post-resurrection verses.

It was all written after the resurrection, about Jesus.(present tense)

[Sean]

Originally Posted by TK Burk

John 1:1....In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John 1:14....And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

The idea that God couldn't "fit inside Jesus" is as silly as the medieval argument on how many angels could dance on the head of a pin.

God is a Spirit. As such, He does not occupy space.

God "filled" the area of the Most Holy Place in the Tabernacle and in the First Temple, so He most certainly could "fit inside Jesus."

Sean, what a ridiculous thing to say.

God was omnipresent when Jesus was conceived.

How did every bit of God fit inside Jesus?

Was Jesus omnipresent when he was conceived?

Oh, so Col. 2:9 does not mean exactly what it says?

[Originalist]

Originally Posted by Sean

Colossians 2:9, all the fullness of God did not fit in the body of Jesus prior to his resurrection. Jesus did not become omnipresent until he resurrected.

Actually, his omnipresence was available to him while on earth, but he laid it aside until his ascension and glorification.

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Originalist

Actually, his omnipresence was available to him while on earth, but he laid it aside until his ascension and glorification.

Jesus, the man, had hidden omnipresence?

Is that 1st century Apostolic teaching?

Didn't Bro. Tecklemarian get in trouble for that kinda thought?



This is the fact.....


I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.

[Originalist]

Originally Posted by Sean

Jesus, the man, had hidden omnipresence?

Is that 1st century Apostolic teaching?

Didn't Bro. Tecklemarian get in trouble for that kinda thought?



This is the fact.....


I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.

Yes, by virtue off the fact that he was joined with his Father, all of the Father's attributes were his for the taking. He chose not to use them.

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Originalist

Yes, by virtue off the fact that he was joined with his Father, all of the Father's attributes were his for the taking. He chose not to use them.

He just said in John 5 he, himself was powerless. Do you agree with him?

[TK Burk]

Originally Posted by Originalist

Yes, by virtue off the fact that he was joined with his Father, all of the Father's attributes were his for the taking. He chose not to use them.

YES!!

Apostolic One God 101!!

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Sean

Colossians 2:9, all the fullness of God did not fit in the body of Jesus prior to his resurrection. Jesus did not become omnipresent until he resurrected.

Charlie Chan, you should of stuck with your LOLs in the eschatology section.
Looks like you ODed on the Rasin Bran.

LOL LOL LOL