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Deep Waters 'Deep Calleth Unto Deep ' -The place to go for Ministry discussions. Please keep it civil. Remember to discuss the issues, not each other. |
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02-14-2018, 06:39 AM
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Registered Member
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Join Date: Feb 2007
Location: Kentucky
Posts: 14,649
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Re: Question on oneness doctrine?
Quote:
This is interesting to me. I wonder how many here would have an opinion about this point. If a Jewish person in Israel comes to faith and receives Baptism in "the name of Yeshua", we might expect that to be more than acceptable. But if an English-speaker in the U.S. is Baptized in "the name of Yeshua" (rather than in the name of Jesus), is that acceptable?
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The answer is yes it would be acceptable to God and no it would be rejected by some on this forum.
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02-14-2018, 10:21 AM
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Unvaxxed Pureblood
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Join Date: Jul 2012
Location: Zion aka TEXAS
Posts: 26,020
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Re: Question on oneness doctrine?
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Originally Posted by Esaias
I find it interesting that the apostles, in teaching Greek speaking gentiles, never mentioned anything about a Hebrew pronunciation of God's name. Instead they follow the precedent set by the LXX in rendering the Tetragrammaton as "Kurios" (Lord), or else just referred to Theos (the Father). The only name they emphasized was Jesus Christ.
They did carry over Hebrew and Aramaic words and phrases, such as amen, maranatha, and alleluia. But they did not seemed concerned about any correct pronunciation of YHVH as being needful for gentile Christians to know.
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Raffi
Given that no one else has ventured to critique the theory I suggested a few posts back, nor offered an alternative theory as to why The Bible reveals two Particular Names for God, I guess the theory is fairly well standard among Apostolic people of various stripes.
So my next point of curiosity is whether the writer of the question in the Original Post is satisfied as well with that answer, or if there are still problems in mind.
Peace
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???
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02-14-2018, 09:34 PM
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Registered Member
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Join Date: Jul 2017
Posts: 211
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Re: Question on oneness doctrine?
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Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple
The motive might be a reverence for the name Peter preached in Acts 4:12 Thats the motive I had when I first was baptized in the name of Jesus.
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Right . . . I was going to add, what if the motive was not so much to get in on some theological fad or movement, but to do so as a way to reverence the actual historic and personal name of Jesus as he actually would have heard it and been addressed by in his day? A way of honoring Jesus from a deep, devotional level, I suppose.
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02-14-2018, 09:39 PM
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Registered Member
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Join Date: Jul 2017
Posts: 211
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Re: Question on oneness doctrine?
Michael,
Do you make the argument that a person SHOULD be Baptized in the name of "Yeshua", or do you think it is a flexible issue that can be left up to each individual according to personal conscience or preference (assuming of course that the Baptizee is aware that the option even exists)?
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02-14-2018, 10:40 PM
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Registered Member
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Join Date: Feb 2007
Location: Kentucky
Posts: 14,649
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Re: Question on oneness doctrine?
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Originally Posted by Raffi
Right . . . I was going to add, what if the motive was not so much to get in on some theological fad or movement, but to do so as a way to reverence the actual historic and personal name of Jesus as he actually would have heard it and been addressed by in his day? A way of honoring Jesus from a deep, devotional level, I suppose.
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This is it exactly. Those who despise this name think we are just looking to be "different", so we can say we know something others dont know.
I heard that argument from Trins saying that is the only reason Apostolics believe in Oneness and get baptized in Jesus name.
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02-14-2018, 10:52 PM
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Registered Member
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Join Date: Feb 2007
Location: Kentucky
Posts: 14,649
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Re: Question on oneness doctrine?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Raffi
Michael,
Do you make the argument that a person SHOULD be Baptized in the name of "Yeshua", or do you think it is a flexible issue that can be left up to each individual according to personal conscience or preference (assuming of course that the Baptizee is aware that the option even exists)?
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I have never made the argument that anyone SHOULD be baptized into the name of Yeshua. I did it because I believed it to be the original name used by the early Church. There have been others who heard myself or someone else talk about it and asked to be baptized into it.
I baptized the first person in the original name in 1983. She had never been baptized. I never made an issue of it I just told her Jesus was the English version of the Hebrew name.
I dont think I have ever set out to push anyone to be baptized in the Hebrew name who was baptized in Jesus name. If anyone requested it I was happy to do so.
I really dont use Yeshua much on this forum. Some blaspheme against it and I dont wish to see them get in trouble for it. Theres nothing wrong with the name of Jesus Christ. I still use it a lot even in prayer. It pains me to hear anyone speaking evil of Jesus. I pray no one ever does.
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02-15-2018, 12:45 AM
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Unvaxxed Pureblood
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Join Date: Jul 2012
Location: Zion aka TEXAS
Posts: 26,020
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Re: Question on oneness doctrine?
So... the apostles using Greek, and never bothering to encourage anyone to use Hebrew names for either God or Jesus, and more importantly God preserving the Greek and not Hebrew* has no bearing on the subject?
* YHVH has been preserved in Hebrew, but no definite pronunciation, hence the dozen or more variations on the "sacred name".
Would the apostles be moving in the same direction? Did they encourage anyone to search out or use a Hebrew sounding name? (Is "Yeshua" even Hebrew?)
When the SCRIPTURE says "thou shalt call His name JESUS" is the Scripture in error? Is Jesus "Yeshua" in English?
Why is there a sudden movement among native English speakers with no Hebrew or Jewish background to suddenly start using Hebrew-sounding names?
Why do people today feel things are important that the apostles DID NOT feel were important? What does it really mean to be "apostolic"?
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02-15-2018, 12:51 AM
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Unvaxxed Pureblood
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Join Date: Jul 2012
Location: Zion aka TEXAS
Posts: 26,020
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Re: Question on oneness doctrine?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple
I did it because I believed it to be the original name used by the early Church.
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On what basis? Did Paul baptise using the name Iesous? Or Yeshua?
What if they used Yahvahshuah? Why is it there hasn't been 2000 years of the Gospel of "Yeshua" but instead of IESOUS? Why does every language group on earth get the Saviour's name from the Greek instead of the Hebrew?
None of this even makes sense to me, to be perfectly honest.
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02-15-2018, 04:25 AM
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Covenant Apostolic
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Join Date: Jul 2011
Location: Sebastian, FL
Posts: 8,765
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Re: Question on oneness doctrine?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Esaias
On what basis? Did Paul baptise using the name Iesous? Or Yeshua?
What if they used Yahvahshuah? Why is it there hasn't been 2000 years of the Gospel of "Yeshua" but instead of IESOUS? Why does every language group on earth get the Saviour's name from the Greek instead of the Hebrew?
None of this even makes sense to me, to be perfectly honest.
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I agree.
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02-15-2018, 04:28 AM
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Covenant Apostolic
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Join Date: Jul 2011
Location: Sebastian, FL
Posts: 8,765
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Re: Question on oneness doctrine?
A question for those who use a Hebrew name for Jesus:
What version of the bible do you use and why?
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