Quote:
Originally Posted by keith4him
I agree with this nice summary, but it seems the common one is tongue speaking, but I won't put God in a box if he chooses some other form of ejaculation (term coined by David Pawson where referring to the phenomenon by which the Spirit expresses itself in a notable way)
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I agree.
Speaking with tongues is mentioned in
Acts 2, 10, and 19.
And it is implied in
Acts 8.
I was not denying that.
We seem to have witnesses that there is a post conversion experience in the Spirit that we may give different names (baptism, receiving, filling, falling upon, promise, coming upon, gift) that is usually received through the laying on of hands, and that experience is often accompanied or followed by speaking with other tongues/languages. I think most of us can agree with that.
Can we draw the conclusion that a person has not received that experience if they have not spoken with tongues? Or, can we say that everyone who receives that experience will speak with tongues? Or can we say that a person has not received that experience until he/she has spoken with tongues? We probably have differences of opinion here.
The "initial physical evidence" doctrine is based on three witnesses where Jews and Gentiles spoke with tongues when receiving that experience. To some that is sufficient "proof." For others it is not.
I'm not arguing for or against here.
I speak/pray with tongues just about every day.
I do not judge someone who does not.
P.S. I do not recognize or categorize my "prayer language." I don't know if it is a currently known human language, a language from somewhere in the past, an earthly language, a heavenly language, or what. It is a special, privileged communication between my spirit and my Lord and it builds me up.