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Deep Waters 'Deep Calleth Unto Deep ' -The place to go for Ministry discussions. Please keep it civil. Remember to discuss the issues, not each other.


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  #1  
Old 02-09-2007, 10:47 PM
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Praxeas Praxeas is offline
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Christ in you?

Notice how the Spirit is said to be distinct from Christ in this context and yet is also said to BE Christ

Rom 8:9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
Rom 8:10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.
Rom 8:11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.

Some folks would see this distinction in verse 11 and conclude that Christ can't be that Spirit or that the Spirit of Christ can't be the Spirit of God....because of the grammatical distinctions. Yet clearly the same Spirit is being refered to...How is it that a mere man can be in you all (Christians)? Unless by "Christ be in you" it is refering to the Spirit of God.

In this context then Christ is distinct from God and Spirit and yet Spirit of Christ is synonomous with Spirit of God and "Christ in you"
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Old 02-10-2007, 06:44 AM
mizpeh mizpeh is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Praxeas View Post
Notice how the Spirit is said to be distinct from Christ in this context and yet is also said to BE Christ

Rom 8:9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
Rom 8:10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.
Rom 8:11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.

Some folks would see this distinction in verse 11 and conclude that Christ can't be that Spirit or that the Spirit of Christ can't be the Spirit of God....because of the grammatical distinctions. Yet clearly the same Spirit is being refered to...How is it that a mere man can be in you all (Christians)? Unless by "Christ be in you" it is refering to the Spirit of God.

In this context then Christ is distinct from God and Spirit and yet Spirit of Christ is synonomous with Spirit of God and "Christ in you"
Maybe Christ in one place (vs10) refers to God's existence as Spirit and Christ (vs11) refers to God's existence as man. The same God in two different manifestations.
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Old 02-10-2007, 01:36 PM
Threvtl
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This pretty much explains it, I think................
1Ti 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
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Old 02-10-2007, 03:00 PM
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Originally Posted by mizpeh View Post
Maybe Christ in one place (vs10) refers to God's existence as Spirit and Christ (vs11) refers to God's existence as man. The same God in two different manifestations.
I'd like to know from those that keep harping on the distinctions proving Christ isn't God or that they are two different persons how they explain this. It clearly shows a distinction and yet a "sameness"
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Old 02-12-2007, 02:52 PM
Chan
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Originally Posted by Praxeas View Post
Notice how the Spirit is said to be distinct from Christ in this context and yet is also said to BE Christ

Rom 8:9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
Rom 8:10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.
Rom 8:11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.

Some folks would see this distinction in verse 11 and conclude that Christ can't be that Spirit or that the Spirit of Christ can't be the Spirit of God....because of the grammatical distinctions. Yet clearly the same Spirit is being refered to...How is it that a mere man can be in you all (Christians)? Unless by "Christ be in you" it is refering to the Spirit of God.

In this context then Christ is distinct from God and Spirit and yet Spirit of Christ is synonomous with Spirit of God and "Christ in you"
But are they distinctions of person or distinctions of operation?
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Old 02-12-2007, 03:14 PM
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drummerboy_dave drummerboy_dave is offline
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Christ be in you is the Holy Ghost is The spirit of God. They're one in the same.
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Old 02-12-2007, 04:58 PM
mizpeh mizpeh is offline
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But are they distinctions of person or distinctions of operation?

What do you mean, Chan?
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  #8  
Old 02-12-2007, 07:59 PM
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Praxeas Praxeas is offline
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Originally Posted by Chan View Post
But are they distinctions of person or distinctions of operation?
That's just it....just because the bible speaks of a distinction in one place doesn't really equal a doctrine of distinct persons...

Jesus often refered to "The Son" in the third person...that never means he is someone other than himself
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Old 02-12-2007, 08:11 PM
mizpeh mizpeh is offline
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Originally Posted by Praxeas View Post
That's just it....just because the bible speaks of a distinction in one place doesn't really equal a doctrine of distinct persons...

Jesus often refered to "The Son" in the third person...that never means he is someone other than himself

I recently had a Trinitarian seminary student tell me that John 3:16 should not have been written in red letters because it was not Jesus who spoke those words but the words were commentary by the apostle John.


For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
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  #10  
Old 02-12-2007, 08:39 PM
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Originally Posted by mizpeh View Post
I recently had a Trinitarian seminary student tell me that John 3:16 should not have been written in red letters because it was not Jesus who spoke those words but the words were commentary by the apostle John.


For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Maybe. I think there are a lot of verses just like that that could be seen as commentary...

Also the Prophets do this all the time...when Isaiah says "Thus says the LORD, thy Redeemer and He that formed thee from the womb.." that's Isaiah speaking getting ready to introduce what the message the LORD gave him. The LORD speaks first person and Isaiah speaks third person and perhaps sometimes second person
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