View Full Version : The Human Spirit of Jesus?
Abiding Now
11-13-2014, 08:30 AM
If I understand it correctly, the dual nature doctrine teaches that the MAN Jesus had the fullness of God dwelling in him and that Jesus also had a "human spirit". This human spirit within Jesus gave him the ability to be fully man and to be tempted, be hungry, sleep, etc.
So, what happened to this "human spirit" at Calvary and after the resurrection of Jesus? Is the "human spirit" still residing in the glorified body of Jesus?
Aquila
11-13-2014, 08:39 AM
If I understand it correctly, the dual nature doctrine teaches that the MAN Jesus had the fullness of God dwelling in him and that Jesus also had a "human spirit". This human spirit within Jesus gave him the ability to be fully man and to be tempted, be hungry, sleep, etc.
So, what happened to this "human spirit" at Calvary and after the resurrection of Jesus? Is the "human spirit" still residing in the glorified body of Jesus?
The human spirit of Jesus and the Spirit of God are in an unexplainable and inseparable spiritual union. Thus, the Spirit of Christ and the Spirit of God are one. When the Spirit of Christ is present, the Spirit of God is present. They can be distinguished from one another Christologically... but not separated experientially. The man Jesus Christ still exists, glorified, and elevated to the right hand of power and glory in Heaven. Even in the book of Revelation Jesus speaks of His Father in a manner that continues the distinction as it relates to these distinct modes of being.
Timmy
11-13-2014, 08:45 AM
The human spirit of Jesus and the Spirit of God are in an unexplainable and inseparable spiritual union. Thus, the Spirit of Christ and the Spirit of God are one. When the Spirit of Christ is present, the Spirit of God is present. They can be distinguished from one another Christologically... but not separated experientially. The man Jesus Christ still exists, glorified, and elevated to the right hand of power and glory in Heaven. Even in the book of Revelation Jesus speaks of His Father in a manner that continues the distinction as it relates to these distinct modes of being.
Can you expound on that a bit? Not sure what you mean.
Aquila
11-13-2014, 09:30 AM
Can you expound on that a bit? Not sure what you mean.
When you experience the baptism of the Holy Spirit or a moving of the Holy Spirit, experientially you are also experiencing being baptized into Christ or being moved by the Spirit of Christ.
DaveC519
11-13-2014, 02:14 PM
If I understand it correctly, the dual nature doctrine teaches that the MAN Jesus had the fullness of God dwelling in him and that Jesus also had a "human spirit". This human spirit within Jesus gave him the ability to be fully man and to be tempted, be hungry, sleep, etc.
So, what happened to this "human spirit" at Calvary and after the resurrection of Jesus? Is the "human spirit" still residing in the glorified body of Jesus?
Hello Abiding Now,
It's my understanding there are two camps within Oneness theology, the first believing Jesus had a distinct human spirit, the second believing he did not. Personally, I fall into the first camp.
Since Christ continues to be fully human after the resurrection- albeit a glorified human- then I believe he continues to have a distinctly human spirit even in his glorified state.
Praxeas
11-13-2014, 04:05 PM
If I understand it correctly, the dual nature doctrine teaches that the MAN Jesus had the fullness of God dwelling in him and that Jesus also had a "human spirit". This human spirit within Jesus gave him the ability to be fully man and to be tempted, be hungry, sleep, etc.
So, what happened to this "human spirit" at Calvary and after the resurrection of Jesus? Is the "human spirit" still residing in the glorified body of Jesus?
No it teaches that the Son is the same Person as the Father but that the Son has the full nature of God united with the Full nature of Humanity
So He had a human spirit as well as the Divine spirit
Jesus is still fully God and Human and so still possesses a Human spirit
glady39
11-14-2014, 03:47 PM
Greetings Saints , please help me in determining if I qualify as Oneness of not ?
1 There is One Infinite Elohim , unfathomable & almost incomprehensible by the finite human comprehension . This One Infinite Elohim reveals Himself distinctly as our ABBA,The indwelling Spiritual " Free Gift " of His manifested Self called The Holy Ghost.
2 The Son is Indwelled with The Infinite Elohim himself in a human form or 1Ti 3:16 And, beyond all question, the secret of reverence is great – who was revealed in the flesh, declared right in Spirit, was seen by messengers, was proclaimed among nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in esteem. (ISR)
3 Every sinner must repent of their sins. ( If a Believer wishes to do it correctly )
http://www.haydid.org/ronimmer.htm
4 That Jesus / YAHshua Name , Acts 2:38 baptism is the only biblical mode of water baptism by immersion . “Repent, and let each one of you be immersed in the Name of יהושע Messiah for the forgiveness of sins."
5 That the Infinite Holy Ghost is for today and is received by faith with the initial evidence of speaking in tongues. “For the promise is to you and to your children, and to all who are far off, as many as יהוה our Elohim shall call.”
Speaking in tongues , first as Acts 2:4 , 10:44,45 or as our Master & others Mat. 3:16,17 .
6 The Saint will go on to strive , lead by The Free Gift to live a Holy converted life, pleasing to One Infinite Elohim YAHweh in the footsteps of the FIRSTBORN Brother from the dead .
7 1Co 15:27 For “He has put all under His feet.” But when He says “all are put under Him,” it is clear that He who put all under Him is excepted. ( not included )
1Co 15:28 And when all are made subject to Him, then the Son Himself shall also be subject to Him who put all under Him, in order that Elohim be all in all.
1Co 15:29 Otherwise, what shall they do who are immersed for the dead, if the dead are not raised at all? Why indeed are they immersed for the dead?
Those folks that died after Messiah's third day " the first Resurrection " & the Elohim's DAY , Pentecost . Believers unable to obey the COMMAND of Acts 2:38 . HalleluYAH .
The servant ron .
Originalist
11-14-2014, 04:42 PM
Calvary was prior to his glorification. Thus his human spirit was just as limited as ours and left his body. The human spirit was glorified with the rest of his humanity and now operates in total union with the divine Spirit of God as one Spirit.
glady39
11-14-2014, 10:00 PM
Greetings Fellow Believer ,
Blessings , the servant ron .
mfblume
11-15-2014, 09:55 PM
He definitely had a distinct HUMAN SPIRIT. Otherwise this verse makes no sense:
Luke 23:46 And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.
mfblume
11-15-2014, 09:56 PM
Calvary was prior to his glorification. Thus his human spirit was just as limited as ours and left his body. The human spirit was glorified with the rest of his humanity and now operates in total union with the divine Spirit of God as one Spirit.
Amen.
Praxeas
11-16-2014, 02:38 AM
He definitely had a distinct HUMAN SPIRIT. Otherwise this verse makes no sense:
Luke 23:46 And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.
Certainly. "Spirit" in scriptures can mean a lot of different things, coming from the word for wind in greek. In some cases it means Life"..to "give up the ghost" meant "to die"
mfblume
11-16-2014, 08:23 AM
Certainly. "Spirit" in scriptures can mean a lot of different things, coming from the word for wind in greek. In some cases it means Life"..to "give up the ghost" meant "to die"
What would be the significance to commending one's breath?
Abiding Now
11-17-2014, 07:19 PM
Thanks for the impute.
Aquila
11-20-2014, 11:31 AM
He definitely had a distinct HUMAN SPIRIT. Otherwise this verse makes no sense:
Luke 23:46 And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.
I agree. The language of this text would imply that Jesus has a human spirit that is distinct (but not separate) from the Father. However, based on what you told me in an earlier thread... Jesus may have used this language not meaning entirely what it implies. According to you, the wording would only be necessary based on Christ's "mode" of being. Therefore, the "my spirit" (which implies distinction) may not imply a distinction after all. Christ's spirit may indeed by the Father's very own Spirit without distinction of any kind.
Thoughts?
Aquila
11-20-2014, 11:33 AM
What would be the significance to commending one's breath?
I've come to believe that this is the ancient's way of describing one's "living essence" which was symbolized or seen in one's natural breath, as natural breathing relates to being alive. Not literally the breath in their lungs.
That's my understanding.
Lafon
11-20-2014, 12:18 PM
"And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost" (Luke 23:48).
It is my opinion that the words "spirit" and "ghost" within this passage implies one and the selfsame thing: the "breath of life."
Therefore when Christ Jesus cried aloud, saying to the Spirit "into thy hand I COMMEND my spirit," what He was implying was that He was "giving up, delivering over, or committing" to the Father His "breath" (the English word "commend" being derived from the Greek word "paradidomi" which has the same meaning).
mfblume
11-21-2014, 05:30 PM
I agree. The language of this text would imply that Jesus has a human spirit that is distinct (but not separate) from the Father. However, based on what you told me in an earlier thread... Jesus may have used this language not meaning entirely what it implies. According to you, the wording would only be necessary based on Christ's "mode" of being. Therefore, the "my spirit" (which implies distinction) may not imply a distinction after all. Christ's spirit may indeed by the Father's very own Spirit without distinction of any kind.
Thoughts?
If the spirit of Christ is not distinct at all from the Father's Spirit, then Christ was not a genuine human being.
Praxeas
11-21-2014, 08:13 PM
Certainly. "Spirit" in scriptures can mean a lot of different things, coming from the word for wind in greek. In some cases it means Life"..to "give up the ghost" meant "to die"
What would be the significance to commending one's breath?
I really have no idea what you are asking.
mfblume
11-21-2014, 08:19 PM
I really have no idea what you are asking.
For the bible to quote Him saying that, and it was only Him saying He is losing his breath in death, seems a little redundant.
Aquila
11-21-2014, 08:29 PM
For the bible to quote Him saying that, and it was only Him saying He is losing his breath in death, seems a little redundant.
I believe it is a metaphor expressing the man, Christ Jesus', relinquishing His human spirit soul and living essence, to the Father.
Praxeas
11-21-2014, 09:56 PM
I believe it is a metaphor expressing the man, Christ Jesus', relinquishing His human spirit soul and living essence, to the Father.
So the Bible isn't always literal after all.....
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