| mfblume |
11-23-2014 08:09 PM |
Re: Does Jesus have a child?
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Originally Posted by Aquila
(Post 1344821)
Just because we can conceive of God doing a thing...it doesn't mean He did it. God could be manifest in every major religion too. Some claim the same divine essence in Jesus is found in Buddha.
My point is...instead of imagining what God could do...let's take Christ's own description of Oneness into account.
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Of course we take what the bible said about One God, and not a whim of our imagination. The word PERSON was in existence in the Greek as we find in Hebrews and elsewhere. But my point is that the bible never said Jesus was a PERSON distinct from the Father as a PERSON. Never. So why demand it is the case?
Quote:
John 10:30
30 I and my Father are one. (KJV)
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But that is NOT a description of the Oneness in regards to the Godhead. Yes, there is a DIFFERENT Oneness of God and His Son like a man and a wife being one. I agree with you here. But when it comes to Godhead theology, THAT UNITY of two oneness is not the oneness after which the theology Oneness Godhead teaching is about. It is about one person comprising the Father, Son and Holy Ghost.
Quote:
John 10:38
38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. (KJV)
John 12:45
45 And he that seeth me seeth him that sent me. (KJV)
John 14:7-10
7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.
8 Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?
10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. (KJV)[/Indent]
If I say that the Father and the man, Christ Jesus, are one... That He is "in" the Father and the Father "in" Him... That this oneness of being is so complete that to see one is to see the other, to hear one, is to hear the other... That it is the Father who dwelleth in the very being of the man, Christ Jesus, that has done Christ's works...Why isn't that sufficient?
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All of that is true, but it is a different oneness than the issue we are dealing with at hand.
That is the skirting issue, and not the actual issue we are discussing, I think.
Oneness is that of ONE PERSON alone between Father, Son and Holy Spirit. And until you stop throwing limitations of man onto God you will never be able to see the point. Trinitarianism and your-ism both come from the perspective of interpreting God's nature on the basis of human interaction with human. Jesus spoke as the Father when He said he IS before Abraham. That was no grammatical mistake in the writing. Jesus said He is our God and we are His sons in Rev 21:7. TO say this concept about a HUMAN PERSON distinct in Jesus from the Father's person is to say what the bible never once stated, and the language was available for the writers to say that if it were the case.
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Why imaginatively postulate how Jesus is His own Son? It's illogical and unbiblical..
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I disagree. It is the only proper explanation for what the bible said about God being one. I would not base my theology on titles we use for terms in grammar. The BIBLE never once said God was more than one person. The bottom line is the Bible never said God was more than one person anywhere. And if that were the case, with the bible's silence on that statement, then we have one huge gaping hole in the Word.
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It's like arguing that with God three divine persons can be one God. Again, unbiblical and illogical. By this logic let's add the Seven Spirits of God in the Revelation and claim they are distinct divine persons. It's not an issue of what we can imagine God doing to reconcile Scripture with our fanciful theories. It's about believing in Christ's own testimony about His union with the Father and even being willing to use His own words to describe this oneness.
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No, it's about letting the bible restrict our terms and descriptions of God by what it said about the issue itself. And it never said anything about more than one person. Sorry. If you used ONLY THE TERMS THE BIBLE USED, you could never say God was two persons in the time of Christ's life on earth in mortal flesh. My thoughts, anyway. :thumbsup
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