Re: Do all speak with tongues?
 

1 Cor 12:9 lists "faith" as one of the gifts of the Spirit. It is said "to another, faith by the same Spirit". Thus, not everyone has the same gift, and that includes faith.

Yet, we know everyone who has the Spirit DOES have faith. So obviously, two different kinds of faith are in view. One, the faith everyone who receives the Spirit has. Two, the faith that certain Christians have as a special working of the Spirit. So then there is the faith that is universal among true believers, and then there is a special operation of faith imparted by the Spirit to certain believers for certain purposes. Not all believers have THAT special gift of "faith".

Just so with tongues.

Re: Do all speak with tongues?
 

awesome

Re: Do all speak with tongues?
 

Awesome question.

I'll share my understanding. Others might have better insight to how to answer your question than I do.

As you mentioned, there is the initial evidence of tongues and then there is the gift of tongues:

1.) Tongues as initial evidence.
2.) Gift of Tongues.

Let's look at the Gift of Tongues first. This will help us distinguish the two in Scripture. The Gift of Tongues has specific instructions regarding its use:

I Corinthians 14:27-28 (ESV)
27 If any speak in a tongue, let there be only two or at most three, and each in turn, and let someone interpret. 28 But if there is no one to interpret, let each of them keep silent in church and speak to himself and to God.

When the Gift of Tongues is at play, there can be two or, at most, three speakers giving an utterance (some might say, or one speaker limited to three utterances). This is to prevent utterance after utterance, after utterance during gatherings. Also, those giving an utterance are to speak in turn. Lastly, there is to be an interpreter. And if no interpreter is present, those who gave the utterance(s) are to remain silent and return to praying with the congregation.

These rules prevent this gift from being abused and used to take over gatherings. It also ensures that the congregation gathering is edified by the utterance by virtue of the gift of interpretation being in operation.

Now. That's the Gift of Tongues. In the book of Acts we see Tongues as Initial Evidence when people receive the Holy Ghost. In Pentecost we saw 120 begin speaking in tongues all at once, so there is no limitation on the number of speakers. In addition we don't see an interpreter present. In fact, we saw the unique manifestation of others hearing their tongues, every man, in the language wherein he was born. In Acts 8 we read about how Samaria received the Holy Ghost and Simon "saw" that the baptism of the Holy Ghost was given through the laying on of hands and offered to buy the gift. This indicates that there was a sign for Simon to see. Thus it is implied that the entre community receiving the Holy Ghost and speaking in tongues. No limitation on number of speakers is present. Also, no mention of an interpretation. In Acts 19 we see 12 people filled with the spirit and speaking in tongues. No limitation on speakers or interpreter is mentioned. Therefore, we can rest assured that these tongues are distinct from the Gift of Tongues. In addition, everyone speaking with tongues in Acts were new converts. They weren't individuals already filled with the Spirit. When dealing with the gift of tongues, one is using a gift of the Spirit that they have previously received.

Based on these details, I believe we see a clear distinction between the two in Scripture. Now, not all have the "Gift of Tongues". But in Acts, everyone filled with the Spirit spoke in tongues as initial evidence.

Hope that helps. God bless.

Re: Do all speak with tongues?
 

:highfive

Re: Do all speak with tongues?
 

I find the answer to be much more rudimentary and concise. The Greek word behind "gift" as in "gift of the Holy Spirit" (e.g. Acts 2:39) is not the same word as "gift of diverse kinds of tongues" (1 Corinthians 12).

Two different words imply two different concepts. The use of the word "gift" in Acts is more in keeping with something given, like a present. The use of gift in 1 Corinthians 12 is charismata, from the Greek word charis the most typical word translated "grace" in the NT. So, these charismata are special endowments of a specific "grace".

Yes, grace is a gift, of course. But grace is not a charismata. Grace is a gift as in a present, something given. A free gift, no less. A charismata, then, is a heightened form of the grace already given by the Spirit of Grace (i.e. Holy Spirit) at salvation, administered by God for Body ministry.

Re: Do all speak with tongues?
 

That's interesting.

Re: Do all speak with tongues?
 

I won't turn this into a debate. In my opinion:

The concept that tongues in 1 Corinthians 12 is about a "gift of tongues" as opposed to the "initial evidence of tongues" isn't a distinction that the bible explicitly reveals. Instead it's a derived belief that is absolutely necessary if the initial evidence of tongues doctrine is true.

If the initial evidence of tongues doctrine isn't true then Paul asserting that all do not speak in tongues would be universally true and there would be no biblical necessity for deriving the belief of different types of tongues (although there could still be different types of tongues even without scripture that suggests it).

Re: Do all speak with tongues?
 

Right.

Re: Do all speak with tongues?
 

In other words, you want to make claims without any responsibility to support and defend those claims.

This reasoning necessarily results in the conclusion that faith is not a universal gift to Christians. But we all know faith is universal to Christians, therefore the reasoning is reduced to an absurdity and thereby refuted beyond repair.

Faith is listed as a gift in 1 Cor 12. Paul asks "Do all...?" and lists several gifts, but not all. The gifts are described as different operations giving rise to different members' varied roles in the Body. Therefore the list following "Do all...?" is not exhaustive but representative (a sample). And therefore, not all have "faith".

IF there aren't two kinds of faith, then the conclusion is inescapable: faith is not universal to all the saved. But we know faith is universal to all the saved, therefore there is more than one kind of faith. And if there is more than one kind of faith, there can be more than one kind of tongues. Specifically, a universal expression of tongues, and a particular or special expression of tongues described in 1 Cor 12-14.

In fact, I would go further and suggest this distinction is specifically alluded to in ch 14, but we aren't in a debate so I'll forbear. :)

Re: Do all speak with tongues?