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-   -   Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized? (https://www.apostolicfriendsforum.com/showthread.php?t=21501)

mizpeh 01-04-2009 03:35 AM

Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Matthew 3:13-15 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
John was preaching about the One who would come after him in verse 11:

Quote:

I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:
But in Luke 1:15, we are told that John was filled with the Holy Ghost from his mother's womb:
Quote:

For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb.
Why did John tell Jesus that he needed to be baptized by Jesus since he had already been filled with the Holy Ghost before he was born?

pelathais 01-04-2009 05:39 AM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
My understanding of Matthew 3:13-15 is that here we see something of an exclamation by John concerning his perception of own unworthiness and helplessness to do anything that would "save" himself. I don't think Matthew intends for us to see John's words here as a teaching; rather they are an expression of emotion and faith; a sort of rhetorical statement by John.

John's baptism was a "baptism of repentance for the remission of sin..." (Mark 1:4; Luke 1:77, Luke 3:3 and others). John's apparent incredulity was caused by the fact that Jesus came to be baptized by John when Jesus had no sin. Jesus instructs John that His request did not involve sin, but righteousness. Baptism itself alone accomplishes no cleansing (1 Peter 3:21). It signifies the passage into a new life (Romans 6:4 and Colossians 2:12) when accompanied by faith. Jesus began His ministry with the "baptism of John" and this event was considered pivotal in the nascent church (Acts 1:22). Thus, Jesus' baptism shows us (among many other things) that Jesus had surrendered His human will to that of the Father and would embark upon His mission.

John's only "need" for baptism was would have been:

1) To demonstrate a similar purpose,
2) To signify his own repentance and remission of sins had taken place.

Since John was already on his mission he had no need for the life changing event of baptism at the time Jesus approached him. Whether or not he had been baptized earlier is an interesting question. Having been raised in the household of a Jewish priest with access to the temple, John no doubt had gone through the mikvahot or ritual Jewish cleanings which involved immersion in water.

Whether or not John needed to be baptized (see your reference to Luke 1:15) had either become moot or already been answered by the time the events described in Matthew 3 took place. Unfortunately the exact details appear to elude us. Perhaps John being filled with the Holy Ghost from the womb solves some questions concerning his own sin and repentance. The fact that he was a Nazarite (an Old Testament "holy warrior") from birth would seem to indicate that his own mission and new life may have been coincidental to his natural birth.

But my take on John's words are that they are intended as an exclamation of emotion and are not didactic.

mizpeh 01-04-2009 02:43 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by pelathais (Post 672849)
My understanding of Matthew 3:13-15 is that here we see something of an exclamation by John concerning his perception of own unworthiness and helplessness to do anything that would "save" himself. I don't think Matthew intends for us to see John's words here as a teaching; rather they are an expression of emotion and faith; a sort of rhetorical statement by John.

Thank you, Pel, for your well thought out answer.

It makes you wonder how close to the chest Jesus and John's parents kept what God had revealed to them about these two from before they were born. Did Elizabeth, Zacharias, Mary, and Joseph ever get together at family reunions or feast days in Jerusalem and discuss what the prophets and angels had foretold them concerning their offspring? Or did they keep it quiet? afterall Joseph was made to flee Judea early on to Egypt because Herod wanted to kill Jesus. If they voiced who their Son was, they might invite attacks from others. All this to say, Did John know Jesus was the Christ who came to save us from our sins? He seemed to know that He was paving the way for the coming of the LORD, who without a doubt, John was unworthy (as are we all) to untie His shoelaces. How much more if John knew that Jesus was the LORD coming to save us from our sins, and John's baptism consisted of repentant Jews confessing their sins in the river and then being baptized for the remission of those confessed sins, that John would feel inadequate to baptize the One who had no sin and had come to save mankind from their sins? Of course John would feel the need to be baptized by Jesus and not to be the one to baptize Jesus!!!

Do you think Thomas's exclamation to Jesus "my Lord and my God" was that of emotion like "OMG" or more in the line of declaring "you are my Lord and my God"?

Quote:

John's baptism was a "baptism of repentance for the remission of sin..." (Mark 1:4; Luke 1:77, Luke 3:3 and others).
Does this mean John was baptizing "because" the repentant person's sins were already forgiven or so that the repentant persons sins would be forgiven?


Quote:

John's apparent incredulity was caused by the fact that Jesus came to be baptized by John when Jesus had no sin. Jesus instructs John that His request did not involve sin, but righteousness.Baptism itself alone accomplishes no cleansing (1 Peter 3:21). It signifies the passage into a new life (Romans 6:4 and Colossians 2:12) when accompanied by faith. Jesus began His ministry with the "baptism of John" and this event was considered pivotal in the nascent church (Acts 1:22). Thus, Jesus' baptism shows us (among many other things) that Jesus had surrendered His human will to that of the Father and would embark upon His mission.
I get a little mixup in this section and that's why I speculated above. I've always understood that Jesus coming to John to be baptized was to reveal Jesus to Israel as their long awaited for Messiah, yet John seems to know this before he baptized Jesus.


John 1:29-36 The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me. And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water. And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him. And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost. And I saw, and bare record that this is the Son of God. Again the next day after John stood, and two of his disciples; And looking upon Jesus as he walked, he saith, Behold the Lamb of God!

Quote:

John's only "need" for baptism was would have been:

1) To demonstrate a similar purpose,
2) To signify his own repentance and remission of sins had taken place.
How would John's sins have been remitted prior to baptism?

Quote:

Since John was already on his mission he had no need for the life changing event of baptism at the time Jesus approached him. Whether or not he had been baptized earlier is an interesting question. Having been raised in the household of a Jewish priest with access to the temple, John no doubt had gone through the mikvahot or ritual Jewish cleanings which involved immersion in water.
Is it taught in the Law of Moses that ritual cleansings or the mikvah remitted sins?

Quote:

Whether or not John needed to be baptized (see your reference to Luke 1:15) had either become moot or already been answered by the time the events described in Matthew 3 took place. Unfortunately the exact details appear to elude us. Perhaps John being filled with the Holy Ghost from the womb solves some questions concerning his own sin and repentance. The fact that he was a Nazarite (an Old Testament "holy warrior") from birth would seem to indicate that his own mission and new life may have been coincidental to his natural birth.
Wasn't John under the Law of Moses? How would John have had access to the "new life" we receive by being born again?

Quote:

But my take on John's words are that they are intended as an exclamation of emotion and are not didactic.
I respectfully disagree with you. :)

Sam 01-04-2009 02:59 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
11 Verily I say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist: notwithstanding he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he.
12 And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force.
13 For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John
Matthew 11:11-13 KJV

1 6The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.
Luke 16:16

It is my understanding that John was the last of the Old Testament prophets.
Was John in the kingdom of God/heaven also?

Scott Hutchinson 01-04-2009 03:08 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
AW let's see The Law and Prophets were emphasized till John The Baptist,then the message that was proclaimed was that the Kingdom of Heaven was at hand or near because when Jesus went to the cross,a change was wrought.
The question is that is asked should be asked was John the baptist was a member of the NT. church ?

jimmyrrs 01-04-2009 03:37 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 672847)
John was preaching about the One who would come after him in verse 11:

But in Luke 1:15, we are told that John was filled with the Holy Ghost from his mother's womb:

Why did John tell Jesus that he needed to be baptized by Jesus since he had already been filled with the Holy Ghost before he was born?

Sorry, but I'm going down a side trail.

I'd like to address the HG John was filled with in his mother's womb.

Luke 1:15 For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb.

His mother & father was filled also.

Luke 1:41 And it came to pass, that, when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost:

Luke 1: 67 And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost, and prophesied, saying,

Yet in John 7:39 (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

What is your thoughts on the HG, John, Elizabeth, & Zacharias received?

Jesus had not yet been cruified, nor the Comforter sent back spoken of in John 14:26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.

pelathais 01-04-2009 03:49 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 673043)
Thank you, Pel, for your well thought out answer.

It makes you wonder how close to the chest Jesus and John's parents kept what God had revealed to them about these two from before they were born. Did Elizabeth, Zacharias, Mary, and Joseph ever get together at family reunions or feast days in Jerusalem and discuss what the prophets and angels had foretold them concerning their offspring? Or did they keep it quiet? afterall Joseph was made to flee Judea early on to Egypt because Herod wanted to kill Jesus. If they voiced who their Son was, they might invite attacks from others. All this to say, Did John know Jesus was the Christ who came to save us from our sins? He seemed to know that He was paving the way for the coming of the LORD, who without a doubt, John was unworthy (as are we all) to untie His shoelaces. How much more if John knew that Jesus was the LORD coming to save us from our sins, and John's baptism consisted of repentant Jews confessing their sins in the river and then being baptized for the remission of those confessed sins, that John would feel inadequate to baptize the One who had no sin and had come to save mankind from their sins? Of course John would feel the need to be baptized by Jesus and not to be the one to baptize Jesus!!!

John 1:33 would seeem to indicate that Jesus' identity was unknown to John. Now, John may have known who his cousin, the carpenter's son was but been ignorant of His ministry. Or it may have been that they hadn't seen one another since infancy - if ever at all. What we can safely infer is that John needed that vision to identify the Messiah to him.
Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 673043)
Do you think Thomas's exclamation to Jesus "my Lord and my God" was that of emotion like "OMG" or more in the line of declaring "you are my Lord and my God"?

Perhaps it was both. Jesus's reaction was key there - He didn't correct Thomas's declaration in any way.

Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 673043)
Does this mean John was baptizing "because" the repentant person's sins were already forgiven or so that the repentant persons sins would be forgiven?

The famous (or infamous?) debate over "eis" (Greek word "for") can go either way, in my opinion. There is some ambiguity here for our 21st century ears. But whatever application you make for Acts 2:38 must be made for John's baptism in Mark 1:4; Luke 1:77; Luke 3:2-3; and others.

Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 673043)
I get a little mixup in this section and that's why I speculated above. I've always understood that Jesus coming to John to be baptized was to reveal Jesus to Israel as their long awaited for Messiah, yet John seems to know this before he baptized Jesus.

Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 673043)
John 1:29-36 The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me. And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water. And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him. And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost. And I saw, and bare record that this is the Son of God. Again the next day after John stood, and two of his disciples; And looking upon Jesus as he walked, he saith, Behold the Lamb of God!

It's as Jesus approaches him that John sees the vision and hears the voice described in John 1. Then, the next day John points Him out to Peter and Andrew.
Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 673043)
How would John's sins have been remitted prior to baptism?

I don't know, and I doubt know that they were. All I can conclude is that by the time Jesus meets John in the river Jesus isn't concerned with getting John baptized nor does He demand to see John's "fruit meet for repentence." John seems to be "okay" by this point. I say he got that way by faith in God. I would say the same of you. "By grace are ye saved through faith..." John was saved the same way. Abraham was saved because he "believed God..." That same salvation is available to us today.
Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 673043)
Is it taught in the Law of Moses that ritual cleansings or the mikvah remitted sins?

Leviticus 11:32-38 has the principle. A "mikvah" means a "gathering" as in the gathering of the seas in Genesis 1. That passage in Leviticus and its context deals with a sort of heirarchy of what things can contaminate what, and what it takes to cleanse things made to be unclean. Somethings have to be simply thrown out. Other things scoured and rinsed. "But if there's a fountain..." or a "mikveh" - a pool or gathering of water "wherein there is plenty of water..." then this fount could make all things clean.

The mikvehs (or more properly mikvahot) don't appear to have been expressly commanded by Moses. However, in the "just to be certain" mindset of Rabbinical Judaism they were used to cleanse the masses before the Temple festivals. After all, you never know where those people have been; especially the Galilaeans! They were always suspected of taking that dreaded short-cut through Samaria.
Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 673043)
Wasn't John under the Law of Moses? How would John have had access to the "new life" we receive by being born again?

You're being too rigid of a Dispensationalist again. http://www.apostolicfriendsforum.com...cons/icon7.gif You said yourself that he had the Holy Ghost "from his mother's womb."
Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 673043)
I respectfully disagree with you. :)

Sigh! Of course you do!

pelathais 01-04-2009 03:52 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Sam (Post 673049)
11 Verily I say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist: notwithstanding he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he.
12 And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force.
13 For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John
Matthew 11:11-13 KJV

1 6The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.
Luke 16:16

It is my understanding that John was the last of the Old Testament prophets.
Was John in the kingdom of God/heaven also?

Ultimately, isn't that where we all end up? After we get poor Abraham out of his own bosom and into paradise isn't he in the Kingdom as well?

Hoovie 01-04-2009 03:59 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by pelathais (Post 673076)
Ultimately, isn't that where we all end up? After we get poor Abraham out of his own bosom and into paradise isn't he in the Kingdom as well?

I love it!

ManOfWord 01-04-2009 04:00 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Another view point from Judaism is that baptism/mikveh was never a salvational experience. It was for ritual cleansing and it took place and does take place multiple times in the life of a Jew.

Many young men were baptized in the name of their Rabbi to signify that they had separated themselves to the teaching of that particular Rabbi. Too often the Christian church superimposes its viewpoint over top of Judaism to interpret Judaism in its light. It really is to be the other way around. :D

SDG 01-04-2009 05:59 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by ManOfWord (Post 673080)
Another view point from Judaism is that baptism/mikveh was never a salvational experience. It was for ritual cleansing and it took place and does take place multiple times in the life of a Jew.

Many young men were baptized in the name of their Rabbi to signify that they had separated themselves to the teaching of that particular Rabbi. Too often the Christian church superimposes its viewpoint over top of Judaism to interpret Judaism in its light. It really is to be the other way around. :D

Josephus writes about John the Baptist and his baptismal message .... it was never viewed as putting away sin (remission) but as identification ....

for a historian of the time to know this message seems to imply that John was very adamant that this was central to his message ...
Quote:


Now some of the Jews thought that the destruction of Herod's army came from God, and that very justly, as a punishment of what he did against John, that was called the Baptist: for Herod slew him, who was a good man, and commanded the Jews to exercise virtue, both as to righteousness towards one another, and piety towards God, and so to come to baptism; for that the washing [with water] would be acceptable to him, if they made use of it, not in order to the putting away [or the remission] of some sins [only], but for the purification of the body; supposing still that the soul was thoroughly purified beforehand by righteousness.

Now when [many] others came in crowds about him, for they were very greatly moved [or pleased] by hearing his words, Herod, who feared lest the great influence John had over the people might put it into his power and inclination to raise a rebellion, (for they seemed ready to do any thing he should advise,) thought it best, by putting him to death, to prevent any mischief he might cause, and not bring himself into difficulties, by sparing a man who might make him repent of it when it would be too late. Accordingly he was sent a prisoner, out of Herod's suspicious temper, to Macherus, the castle I before mentioned, and was there put to death. Now the Jews had an opinion that the destruction of this army was sent as a punishment upon Herod, and a mark of God's displeasure to him.
John is sure to reiterate this issue when his disciples come to him about a purification issue and the baptizing Jesus and his disciples were engaging in .... during Christ's ministry:

22After this, Jesus and his disciples went out into the Judean countryside, where he spent some time with them, and baptized. 23Now John also was baptizing at Aenon near Salim, because there was plenty of water, and people were constantly coming to be baptized. 24(This was before John was put in prison.) 25An argument developed between some of John's disciples and a certain Jew[i] over the matter of ceremonial washing. 26They came to John and said to him, "Rabbi, that man who was with you on the other side of the Jordan—the one you testified about—well, he is baptizing, and everyone is going to him."

27To this John replied, "A man can receive only what is given him from heaven. 28You yourselves can testify that I said, 'I am not the Christ[j] but am sent ahead of him.' 29The bride belongs to the bridegroom. The friend who attends the bridegroom waits and listens for him, and is full of joy when he hears the bridegroom's voice. That joy is mine, and it is now complete. 30He must become greater; I must become less. 31"The one who comes from above is above all; the one who is from the earth belongs to the earth, and speaks as one from the earth. The one who comes from heaven is above all. 32He testifies to what he has seen and heard, but no one accepts his testimony. 33The man who has accepted it has certified that God is truthful. 34For the one whom God has sent speaks the words of God, for God[k] gives the Spirit without limit. 35The Father loves the Son and has placed everything in his hands. 36Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God's wrath remains on him.


The message is clear ... on salvation and the role of baptism.

mizpeh 01-05-2009 01:04 AM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by pelathais (Post 673073)
The famous (or infamous?) debate over "eis" (Greek word "for") can go either way, in my opinion. There is some ambiguity here for our 21st century ears. But whatever application you make for Acts 2:38 must be made for John's baptism in Mark 1:4; Luke 1:77; Luke 3:2-3; and others.

From other accounts of John's baptism, he had folks repenting and confessing their sins while in the Jordan and then baptized them. Matt 3:6, Mark 1:5 It's a close call.



Quote:

It's as Jesus approaches him that John sees the vision and hears the voice described in John 1. Then, the next day John points Him out to Peter and Andrew.
Mark 1:10 And straightway coming up out of the water, he saw the heavens opened, and the Spirit like a dove descending upon him:

It seems like John conflicts with Mark's account of when the Spirit descended. I'll have to look at all the accounts more closely. Maybe John did see the Spirit descend on Jesus before he was baptized and then again after He came up out of the water.



Quote:

I don't know, and I doubt know that they were. All I can conclude is that by the time Jesus meets John in the river Jesus isn't concerned with getting John baptized nor does He demand to see John's "fruit meet for repentence." John seems to be "okay" by this point. I say he got that way by faith in God. I would say the same of you. "By grace are ye saved through faith..." John was saved the same way. Abraham was saved because he "believed God..." That same salvation is available to us today.
It's not the same salvation but a similar salvation, faith apart from the works of the law is involved in both covenants.

L
Quote:

eviticus 11:32-38 has the principle. A "mikvah" means a "gathering" as in the gathering of the seas in Genesis 1. That passage in Leviticus and its context deals with a sort of heirarchy of what things can contaminate what, and what it takes to cleanse things made to be unclean. Somethings have to be simply thrown out. Other things scoured and rinsed. "But if there's a fountain..." or a "mikveh" - a pool or gathering of water "wherein there is plenty of water..." then this fount could make all things clean.

The mikvehs (or more properly mikvahot) don't appear to have been expressly commanded by Moses. However, in the "just to be certain" mindset of Rabbinical Judaism they were used to cleanse the masses before the Temple festivals. After all, you never know where those people have been; especially the Galilaeans! They were always suspected of taking that dreaded short-cut through Samaria.
A mikvahot is a tradition of men. If its not expressly commanded by Moses then it's a tradition of men and I'm not sure why folks equate this to a Christian baptism. Christian baptism is commanded of Christ for a number of reasons.

Quote:

You're being too rigid of a Dispensationalist again.
There is an old covenant and a new covenant which replaced the old covenant. Why struggle with labeling something this or that. It appears fairly simple to me. And if the old covenant could take away sins why bring in the new?


Quote:

You said yourself that he had the Holy Ghost "from his mother's womb."
There were many people in the OT who were filled with the Holy Spirit. Nicodemus, a master in Israel, had no clue that folks were to be born again. Do you think John the Baptist was born again? The new birth is a result of the new covenant.
Quote:

Sigh! Of course you do!
:)

Revelationist 01-05-2009 06:15 AM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 672847)
John was preaching about the One who would come after him in verse 11:



But in Luke 1:15, we are told that John was filled with the Holy Ghost from his mother's womb:

Why did John tell Jesus that he needed to be baptized by Jesus since he had already been filled with the Holy Ghost before he was born?

THis may have been said already, but it was common practice for great teachers of the day to baptize their followers.

mizpeh 01-05-2009 01:21 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Revelationist (Post 673397)
THis may have been said already, but it was common practice for great teachers of the day to baptize their followers.

John was sent by God to baptize. You're implying that John was copying the great teachers of the day. And by extension that God was copying the practices of men.

John 1:33 And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.

mizpeh 01-05-2009 01:31 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Dan,

It sounds like Josephus thought John the Baptist was teaching a works based righteousness/ salvation and not a faith based salvation and that repentance, confession of sins, and bearing fruit meet for repentance were things that happened prior to being baptized by John. Or at least that is how I read it.
Quote:

Now some of the Jews thought that the destruction of Herod's army came from God, and that very justly, as a punishment of what he did against John, that was called the Baptist: for Herod slew him, who was a good man, and commanded the Jews to exercise virtue, both as to righteousness towards one another, and piety towards God, and so to come to baptism; for that the washing [with water] would be acceptable to him, if they made use of it, not in order to the putting away [or the remission] of some sins [only], but for the purification of the body; supposing still that the soul was thoroughly purified beforehand by righteousness.
Dan, you want to site history about baptism? check out these two articles:

http://www.harvestpointecc.com/Resou...ism-Part-I.php

http://www.harvestpointecc.com/Resou...ism-Part-2.php

mizpeh 01-05-2009 01:39 PM

Re: Why did John the Baptist need to be baptized?
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by pelathais (Post 673073)

You're being too rigid of a Dispensationalist again. !

I have to say, Pel, I don't have any rigid predilection for being a Dispensationalist or a Covenantalist. I might be a bit of both!

I ran across this article after being on a forum in which Zwingli's view of baptism was spoken of and not elaborated on...so I went to google what Zwingli believed. What I read in this one section reminded me of what you said and how you express the common thread of faith as it relates to salvation throughout the Bible story.

Quote:

Creating Covenant Theology
The results of Zwingli’s quest were truly revolutionary. In order to justify anew infant baptism, he laid the foundation for a whole new hermeneutical approach to the Bible, usually known as covenant theology. In summary, he rejected the traditional distinction between the Old Covenant and the New Covenant, and introduced that ever since (at least) Abraham there has been just one covenant of grace. What we call the "new" covenant is actually the same covenant God made with Abraham. The Mosaic covenant was merely a secondary, temporary expedient; when it was set aside the Abrahamic covenant continued on and still continues on today. The church today is under the covenant God made with Abraham. This is the concept of covenant unity (50,51).

If there has been just one covenant since the days of Abraham, then there has also been just one covenant people since that time. The Israelites of old and the Christians of today are all part of the same body, the same church (51).

Most significantly, if there is just one covenant and one covenant people, then there is also just one covenant sign. Based on this reasoning, Zwingli totally equated the meaning of baptism in the New Testament with the meaning of Old Testament circumcision’ each is simply a sign of membership in the one covenant people (51, 52).

Here, then, is Zwingli’s trilogy: one covenant, one covenant people, and one covenant sign. This new set of ideas is the basis for the usual Protestant doctrine of baptism. It is the reason many Protestant churches "baptize" infants, and it is the foundation of the commonly accepted Protestant faith-only approach to the baptism of adults.
http://www.harvestpointecc.com/Resou...ism-Part-2.php

Do you agree with this portion?
Quote:

What we call the "new" covenant is actually the same covenant God made with Abraham. The Mosaic covenant was merely a secondary, temporary expedient; when it was set aside the Abrahamic covenant continued on and still continues on today.


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