What meaneth this..
 

Psalm 82 :6 I have said ye are all gods; and all of you are children of the most High. But ye shall die like men and fall like one of the princes..

then in John 10 :34 Is it not written in your law, I said , ye are gods?

If he called them gods, unto whom the Word of God came and the scripture cannot be broken:
say ye of him who m the Father hast sanctified and sent into the world , thou blasphemist ; because I said I am the son of God????

are we in the god class by Jesus Christ or no?
:horn

Re: What meaneth this..
 

No. We are not.

NET bible commentary
It is important to look at the OT context: The whole line reads "I say, you are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you." Jesus will pick up on the term "sons of the Most High" in Joh_10:36, where he refers to himself as the Son of God. The psalm was understood in rabbinic circles as an attack on unjust judges who, though they have been given the title "gods" because of their quasi-divine function of exercising judgment, are just as mortal as other men. What is the argument here?

It is often thought to be as follows: If it was an OT practice to refer to men like the judges as gods, and not blasphemy, why did the Jewish authorities object when this term was applied to Jesus? This really doesn't seem to fit the context, however, since if that were the case Jesus would not be making any claim for "divinity" for himself over and above any other human being--and therefore he would not be subject to the charge of blasphemy. Rather, this is evidently a case of arguing from the lesser to the greater, a common form of rabbinic argument.

The reason the OT judges could be called gods is because they were vehicles of the word of God (cf. Joh_10:35). But granting that premise, Jesus deserves much more than they to be called God. He is the Word incarnate, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world to save the world (Joh_10:36).

In light of the prologue to the Gospel of John, it seems this interpretation would have been most natural for the author. If it is permissible to call men "gods" because they were the vehicles of the word of God, how much more permissible is it to use the word "God" of him who is the Word of God?

Re: What meaneth this..
 

then why would Paul call Satan the god of this world..

and then of course Peter says in his epistle that through the many exceeding and great and precious promises we might partake of the divine nature and escape the corruption that is in the world through lust..

you brought in the word "divine" so I used that scripture because it triggered my rememberance..

so it goes on...

Re: What meaneth this..
 

We have erred in the sense that we think Elohim always refers to the supreme being. YHWH is the most high Elohim but its not all that uncommon that it is used for others.

Re: What meaneth this..
 

Because Satan is "the god of this world"...Im not sure what that has to do with what I posted or the previous topic

Peter said we are partakers OF the Divine nature. He did not say we become Divine. God fills us with His Spirit not makes His Spirit our Spirit

Re: What meaneth this..
 

Now the next question is ....

then how can we mere mortals give unto the lamb that was slain , power and riches and wisdom and strength and honour and glory and blessing

and as far as Satan is concerned how then, can we have power over him and even put him under our feet as Jesus said, behold I give unto you power to tread upon serpents and scorpions , and over all the power of the enemy, and nothing shall by any means hurt you...:heeheehee



You're right Peter did not say we are divine..so we're gonna have to give up that divine nature..:laffatu

Re: What meaneth this..
 

We don't, except for honor and blessings of course by our attitude and actions

We have power over Him because we are protected by God and are given authority to do things in HIS name. It's not OUR authority it's HIS

Re: What meaneth this..
 

I know it's not, but it's given to us..if you give your child something is it his or just a loan..

the bible says the gifts and callings of God are without repentance..:heeheehee

Re: What meaneth this..
 

We are given the authority to do something in HIS name by HIS power

As for the gifts and callings of God, what is your point?

God gives us OF His Spirit. Not God gives us our own Divine Spirit

Re: What meaneth this..
 

if any man be in Christ he is a new creature, old things are passed away, behold all things are become new..

A new Creature..
It does not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that when he shall appear, we shall be like him ; for we shall see him as he is.. and every man that hath this hope purifieth himself ..:happydance


This why we should not lust......
Why Jesus said if you look on a woman to lust after her you commit adultery already (in your heart..)
If you are a powerful person that woman will come after you no matter what her status married or not....

and i don't mean powerful after the flesh..

Re: What meaneth this..
 

gifts and callings are without repentance...meaning they are never recalled..

Re: What meaneth this..
 

Yeah but what did that have to do with your thread about us being gods or anythign I posted?

Re: What meaneth this..
 

elohim can mean mighty ones who are human, or gods, or angels, or God.
How is one God plural?
Well, some think that means a compound unity of more than one person.
Some think that it is a collective noun like jury or team i.e. one jury or one team but more than one single iniviu==
Some think it is a "plural of majesty" term, that God is so much greater than any other single being so He is referred to in the plural form.

Re: What meaneth this..
 

When God gives us something it is ours;
that is why he tries our hearts before and requires that we seek him with all our heart or whole heart..so that he would consume everything in us..leaving nothing but our soul ans him...making us one..:happydance

Re: What meaneth this..
 

Again, ok, but what does that have to do with being gods and what I said? Second time I asked

Re: What meaneth this..
 

again the scripture says ye are all gods,, and of course Jesus referred to it himself...

If God granted us this grace why do we act like we don't have it..

like it's not ours, like it don't belong to us..like it's a loan,

in fact Ephesians one says it's a surety or down payment..
the earnest of our inheritance..:happydance

Re: What meaneth this..
 

I think rivers is saying the gift of the hg is ours and that makes us divine. whether we are divine or not I can't say but we do have a position of greater authority than other humans if we are seated with christ in heavenly places and will judge angels in the age to come. I would say that people with the hg have a new nature and the divine nature of the hg within them. we are sons of God. so i kind of see the point of being gods.

Re: What meaneth this..
 

I already explained what that verse means. You quickly changed the topic to some other verse though Im not sure why.

What does having grace to do with those judges being called gods? Who says we don't act like we have grace?

The bible never says we will become gods.

Re: What meaneth this..
 

The bible says there is no god made before or after Yahweh.

We are not Divine. We are humans

We have a spirit nature but our spirit nature is our spirit not HIS Spirit.

If we are gods like that, then I want one of you all to fly off this planet to another, create plant animals and then create man in your own image...when you realize you can't then you will realize the Spirit of God is NOT the Spirit of Bob, John, Cheryl or any other human. It's HIS Spirit.

This person is confusing grace with Divine nature

Re: What meaneth this..
 

i'm not saying we are gods, but can you concede that we have an elevated position relative to unsaved humans?

Seated with Christ in heavenly places...

Re: What meaneth this..
 

There is nothing to concede. It's not relevant to the topic. I don't concede something lol. I agree saved people are positionally better off than unsaved :thumbsup

Re: What meaneth this..
 

The Bible declares that there is only one God (Jesus), and there are none others beside, before, or above Him. The scripture that is originally spoken of and the commentary Prax posted I certainly agree with. This "you are gods" doctrine can bring about some serious spiritual implications including hefty pride.

There is only one God, and I am just so glad to serve Him. For a day in Your courts is better than a thousand. I would rather be a doorkeeper in the house of my God Than dwell in the tents of wickedness. (Psalms 84:10 NKJV)

Re: What meaneth this..
 

Why, I disagree, I accept the ye are gods and Jesus' reference to it to defend it in John 10..
there is no pride in it..

Jesus said he that is least in the kingdom of God is greater than John the baptist and that includes all before him..

It is an honor from God; he is really quite more lovely than you think..I have known or held this position for more than 20 years and have never had a problem with pride , mainly because for exactly 20 years now Christ Jesus has made himself very particularly personal to me..My idea of God is that he is very much the one who is worthy to be worshiped by gods whom he made to be with him forever.. to have all of his qualities and yet to never forget the depth the breath the length and the height of his love , all of which is incomprehensible to us, now...
But I know that when we see him we shall be like him for we shall see him as he is.....It is easy for me to see this for I am least in the kingdom of God..

and while there may be some who might look down on that :laffatu I would have to laugh at them..for being so naive.. :happydance

Re: What meaneth this..
 

To God , gods is just a name; constipation should convince anyone that they are nothing....:heeheehee

Re: What meaneth this..
 

The problem is that this verse is being taken out of context by Rivers

NET
It is important to look at the OT context: The whole line reads "I say, you are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you." Jesus will pick up on the term "sons of the Most High" in Joh_10:36, where he refers to himself as the Son of God. The psalm was understood in rabbinic circles as an attack on unjust judges who, though they have been given the title "gods" because of their quasi-divine function of exercising judgment, are just as mortal as other men. What is the argument here? It is often thought to be as follows: If it was an OT practice to refer to men like the judges as gods, and not blasphemy, why did the Jewish authorities object when this term was applied to Jesus? This really doesn't seem to fit the context, however, since if that were the case Jesus would not be making any claim for "divinity" for himself over and above any other human being--and therefore he would not be subject to the charge of blasphemy. Rather, this is evidently a case of arguing from the lesser to the greater, a common form of rabbinic argument. The reason the OT judges could be called gods is because they were vehicles of the word of God (cf. Joh_10:35). But granting that premise, Jesus deserves much more than they to be called God. He is the Word incarnate, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world to save the world (Joh_10:36). In light of the prologue to the Gospel of John, it seems this interpretation would have been most natural for the author. If it is permissible to call men "gods" because they were the vehicles of the word of God, how much more permissible is it to use the word "God" of him who is the Word of God?

------
Now, here is what Yahweh says

Isa 43:10 "You are my witnesses," declares the LORD, "and my servant whom I have chosen, that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me.

Re: What meaneth this..
 

This new age, Shirly McClain stuff ain't new. The Devil told this lie in the garden

Re: What meaneth this..
 

The trick with the whole pride thing is this... a prideful person will never admit to being prideful, they would be too proud. lol

Anyway, I think we need to watch the "ye are gods" doctrine...not because its not in the word, but because many times WE can't handle too much without going overboard. We already have problems with trying to be saved. lol We've made all KINDS of messes out of that. I'm sticking to the basics :)

Re: What meaneth this..
 

correct elohim was a generic term for the word god, It was not a name, and it was something commonly used back in the day

Re: What meaneth this..
 

Elohim can be used as a name. Baal was the semitic generic word for Lord but it was also used as a name for one particularly false god

Allah was also a generic arabic word for god but was used as a name too