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Leviticus 27:31 - 5%
Just checking to see if I read this correctly. Is it saying that if someone used a part of their tithe, then they would pay an additional 5% to make up for it?
My question has nothing to do with some trying to teach the extra 5% (half-shekel), which we have discussed in the past. Just wanted the context of this particular verse. "Ought" means "part" in Hebrew. |
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No one has an answer? Man, that's really weird. :heeheehee
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I'm too lazy to look up the verse.
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27:30, 31 For a person living a distance from the sanctuary, it may have been easier to redeem the tithes of his crops than to bring the crops to the sanctuary. Radmacher, E. D., Allen, R. B., & House, H. W. (1997). The Nelson study Bible : New King James Version (Le 27:30). Nashville: T. Nelson Publishers. |
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One of the tithes was supposed to be taken to Jerusalem and consumed by the tither. If a person lived far away and didn't want to actually carry 10% of their animals and produce that long distance they could go to the priest and have their tithe valued and they could then take that amount to Jerusalem and buy that much food in Jerusalem to consume themselves and give to others.
There was a 5% fee for having converted the animals and or produce into currency. The way I assume this would work is that if you had $100 worth of animals and food that you would then take $105 with you and buy that much food when you got to Jerusalem |
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God would have to answer why since it is per his instructions. I wish we knew why God instructed them to do this but, as far as I know, he never explains why. |
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You're a good teacher even if we don't agree politically. :heeheehee |
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:) |
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Just thinking...does the word "LEVY" come from levi (which would relate to those who received mandatory tithes?)
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Was Levy Heavy and was Levi Knee-hi?
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However, I believe it is the Law which governed an ancient agrarian culture. I don't believe it's applicable for today. We are not under the Law. We are free from the Law through Jesus Christ. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=p6PkwyQ4JDA |
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And yes, under the OT Law, any tithe that was "redeemed" for personal use was to be restored to the Levitical caste with 20% interest. |
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Second... where do you garner your interpretation above from? |
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So, are you saying that Lev. 27:31 is not talking about getting the value of their property, turning it into cash, paying the extra and giving it in Jerusalem? |
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The animal sacrifices were later to be all done at Jerusalem, though even this wasn't always observed and would often prove to be too impractical for many folks. But back to your question, the tithe was paid "in kind" and the "fifth part" that was added was paid "in kind" as well, though obviously everything was open to barter and negotiation to achieve a practical result. |
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So, you are saying that how I read Lev. 27:31 is correct? Someone had taken some of their tithe for personal use and needed to pay it back two-fold? Except, I was originally wrong on the percentage. It's 20% and not 5%. Quote:
:thumbsup :thumpsup |
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Now THAT... sounds like usury to a brother... which is forbidden by God... executed upon a brother by God. I see where you get the fifth part from. But where do you get that this is referring to selling ones tithe for personal use? |
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It appears to be saying he did something with the tithes, had to pay it back, and he would add a fifth on top of that. Of course, I had 5% in mind and didn't figure it properly. That is why I said it almost seems like usury. So, if he has to have it valued, as you and Prax stated, what scripture supports that. |
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