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Justin 08-23-2013 07:12 AM

The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
I’ve been studying on the Gift of Tongue as Paul mentions in 1 Cor 12. In verses 29-30, Paul asks questions in which he expects the answer to be “no”:

29Are all apostles? are all prophets? are all teachers? are all workers of miracles?
30Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret ?

If all are not expected to speak in tongues, how do we validate the “Tongues Initial evidence” doctrine? In chapter 14, Paul continues about tongues… he references speaking to God (in tongues) for private prayer, and speaking to others in tongues (as long as there is an interpreter). In my opinion, Paul does not differentiate between speaking to God in tongues and speaking to others in tongues.

When I read about tongues in Acts 2 and subsequent chapters where people speak in tongues when they receive the Holy Ghost, it seems to reflect the Gift of Tongues… which Paul says not everyone will speak in Tongues…

Pliny 08-23-2013 07:49 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Obviously there is a contradiction...


A contradiction in the understanding not the bible.
Read the passage of John 3 and pay attention to what Jesus says concerning the wind. There is a sound that comes with the wind - so is everyone that is born of the Spirit.

On the day of Pentecost that sound was revealed as tongues. Thus, there are two types/purposes of tongues.
1) They build up the individual.
2) When the "gift of tongues" is used they are intended to build up the church.


How did the Jews know the gentiles received the Holy Ghost (Acts 10)?
Because they heard them speak with tongues and magnify God.

In Acts 8 we are not told specifically what happened but it is apparent that something miraculous took place. Simon would never have offered money unless it was truly a remarkable event. Though it does not say specifically it certainly is more than plausible that he heard them speak with tongues.


The "gift of tongues" is to be by one or two only. Contradicts Acts except when understood that they are two separate things.

Paul also said forbid not to speak with tongues.
He also said that he is glad that he speaks in tongues more than ALL of them, indicating that all of them speak with tongues.

As I mentioned earlier tongues builds up the individual's faith. Therefore, every individual should speak in tongues and yield themselves to the Holy Ghost.

The gift of tongues is intended for the purpose of edifying the body so should be done by relatively few because it is the interpretation that matters in that instance.

Scott Hutchinson 08-23-2013 09:55 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
The gift of tongues is for congregational use,the usage of the gift of tongues differs from initial evidence tongues.

Justin 08-23-2013 10:26 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson (Post 1270856)
The gift of tongues is for congregational use,the usage of the gift of tongues differs from initial evidence tongues.

I under stand that this is crucial to prove the initial evidence doctrine, but where in scripture can this be proven?

One could say that when the folks in Acts 2, 8 and 10 received the Holy Ghost, they simply began exercising the Gift of Tongues (1 Cor 12-14). What's also critical to note is that they also "prophesied" which is another Gift of the Spirit.

Are you going to say there is a difference between Acts 2 "prophecy" and the gift of the Spirit (prophecy)? You'd have to, if you differentiate between the tongues.

Aquila 08-23-2013 11:03 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
I'd say that it is definitely "initial evidence" in that it served as the initial evidence in Acts. However, something can be present without evidence of it's reality. It's the first thing we might look for... but not the only thing. In ancient times "Christians" who were seeking God experienced spiritual "ecstasy" wherein they received visions, were visited by angels, and worked healings and miracles. Some spoke unintelligibly. However, record doesn't show that all did. Therefore, I argue that it is the "initial evidence" we should look for... but not the only evidence. We must be discerning.

Scott Hutchinson 08-23-2013 11:26 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
In Acts 2:4 all who received The Holy Ghost baptism spake with tongues,there also is several meanings of the word prophesying. Prophesying can also mean speaking under inspiration or it can be fore telling if you will.In a church service all would not give messages in tongues,that is Paul what meant in 1.Cor.12.

Justin 08-23-2013 11:35 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson (Post 1270872)
In Acts 2:4 all who received The Holy Ghost baptism spake with tongues,there also is several meanings of the word prophesying. Prophesying can also mean speaking under inspiration or it can be fore telling if you will.In a church service all would not give messages in tongues,that is Paul what meant in 1.Cor.12.

You are correct. I just taught on this subject the other day. I don't think anyone would disagree that the prophecy mentioned in Acts 2:4 is the same as the gift mentioned in 1 Cor 12.

renee819 08-23-2013 04:39 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Justin, I go into this more thoroughly in the Debate Room under Salvation Issues. “The difference in Other Tongues and Unknown Tongues.

The main difference is---Other Tongues is a foreign language. And anyone close by the speaker that understands that language, can interpret it.
The purpose? As evidence when a person receives the Holy Ghost. And we are never told of any other evidence of the Holy Ghost, in the Bible.

Unknown Tongues---no man understands, unless God gives the interpretation. I believe that Unknown Tongues is God's language.

The purpose,...

It is our prayer language, in private prayer at home. (It is easier to pray in Unknown tongues than it is to pray in English, or whatever a persons native language is.)

It edify's the speaker. Builds up their spirit.

We are praying directly to God, and we are speaking mysteries. (It has been my experience, when I spend a lot of time in unknown tongues (Privately) I can write better. Think better. Keep my mind more on spiritual things easier.)

When it is spoken at church, it should be one at a time and wait for the interpretation, and then, it becomes Prophecy.

Whereas with Other Tongues (people receiving the Holy Ghost) can be by the hundreds if God so chose. Like the 120 at Pentecost.

Abiding Now 08-23-2013 06:03 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
When I PERSONALLY received the Holy Ghost and spoke in tongues I never doubted tongues after that.

Whether it was another person receiving the Spirit, praying in the Spirit or it was the gift of tongues and interpretation.

It always just blesses me way down deep.

Pressing-On 08-23-2013 07:06 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by renee819 (Post 1270933)
It is our prayer language, in private prayer at home. (It is easier to pray in Unknown tongues than it is to pray in English, or whatever a persons native language is.)

When taking in the whole counsel, I don't see any conclusive or emphatic evidence that Paul is instructing people to only speak in tongues at home and only in private - outside of tongues and interpretation.

I also don't see the Disciples embracing the terminology - "prayer language".

The instructions do give the idea that the person is speaking to God and not the church body, edifying themselves alone in a quiet and personal manner:

"For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries." 1 Corinthians 14:2

"He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church." I Corinthians 14:4

Again, nothing here indicates the person is not with the church body.

I also find that Paul is showing that the speakers involved in tongues and interpretation (I Cor. 14:28) were very well able to control themselves, indicating that they could or should be able to identify between edification of the church body and personal edification.

Anyone who has been around Pentecost, for any length of time, knows the difference as well.

Evang.Benincasa 08-23-2013 07:07 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
I am just glad I speak in tongues more than you all. :highfive

renee819 08-23-2013 07:31 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Pressing-On (Post 1270966)
When taking in the whole counsel, I don't see any conclusive or emphatic evidence that Paul is instructing people to only speak in tongues at home and only in private - outside of tongues and interpretation.

I also don't see the Disciples embracing the terminology - "prayer language".

The instructions do give the idea that the person is speaking to God and not the church body, edifying themselves alone in a quiet and personal manner:

"For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries." 1 Corinthians 14:2

"He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church." I Corinthians 14:4

Again, nothing here indicates the person is not with the church body.

I also find that Paul is showing that the speakers involved in tongues and interpretation (I Cor. 14:28) were very well able to control themselves, indicating that they could or should be able to identify between edification of the church body and personal edification.

Anyone who has been around Pentecost, for any length of time, knows the difference as well.

Yes, they diffently were able to control themselves, as we should also.

Pressing On, No there is no terminology such as "prayer language." but putting the scriptures together we see that Paul is talking about prayer, as well as edifying the church.

"
Quote:

For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God"
When you are speaking to God, you are praying. Then down a little farther,

Quote:

1 Cor14:14 For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful.
:15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.
:18 I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all:
:19 Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that by my voice I might teach others also, than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue
.

If Paul 'spoke in tongues more than them all, yet didn't speak much in the churches, where did he speak in tongues?

I would say, in private, and it would be a prayer language.

Pressing-On 08-23-2013 10:36 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by renee819 (Post 1270970)
Yes, they diffently were able to control themselves, as we should also.

Pressing On, No there is no terminology such as "prayer language." but putting the scriptures together we see that Paul is talking about prayer, as well as edifying the church.

I would rather prefer to use "speaking in tongues" as the Disciples never used any other term.

Quote:

When you are speaking to God, you are praying. Then down a little farther,


If Paul 'spoke in tongues more than them all, yet didn't speak much in the churches, where did he speak in tongues?

I would say, in private, and it would be a prayer language.
I would have to consider Paul's whole counsel and instruction in I Cor 14.

In I Corinthians 14:5, Paul says, "I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather that ye prophesied:"

Notice that in the Greek, "rather" is defined to mean, "more, in a greater degree".

Paul is saying, "I would that you spoke with tongues, but in a larger degree, that you would prophesy."

We, therefore, cannot come to the emphatic conclusion that speaking in tongues is nixed in a church body, other than tongues and interpretation. "More" or "in a greater degree" implies that you are or should be doing more than something else.

I Corinthians 14:19, "had rather" is defined differently. It means, "to will, wish" - "Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding,...",

In essence, Paul is saying, "I wish to speak with five words of my understanding."

Paul wouldn't give instructions that would contradict each other.

He ends the instruction with - 14:39 Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues. (40) Let all things be done decently and in order.

Earnestly desire to prophesy more, don't forbid anyone to speak in tongues. Let everything be done decently and in order.

renee819 08-24-2013 05:18 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Originally Posted by renee819
Quote:

Yes, they diffently were able to control themselves, as we should also.

Pressing On, No there is no terminology such as "prayer language." but putting the scriptures together we see that Paul is talking about prayer, as well as edifying the church
.

Quote:

I would rather prefer to use "speaking in tongues" as the Disciples never used any other term.

I would have to consider Paul's whole counsel and instruction in I Cor 14.

In I Corinthians 14:5, Paul says, "I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather that ye prophesied:"

Notice that in the Greek, "rather" is defined to mean, "more, in a greater degree".

Paul is saying, "I would that you spoke with tongues, but in a larger degree, that you would prophesy."

We, therefore, cannot come to the emphatic conclusion that speaking in tongues is nixed in a church body, other than tongues and interpretation. "More" or "in a greater degree" implies that you are or should be doing more than something else.

I Corinthians 14:19, "had rather" is defined differently. It means, "to will, wish" - "Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding,...",

In essence, Paul is saying, "I wish to speak with five words of my understanding."

Paul wouldn't give instructions that would contradict each other.

He ends the instruction with - 14:39 Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues. (40) Let all things be done decently and in order.

Earnestly desire to prophesy more, don't forbid anyone to speak in tongues. Let everything be done decently and in order
.
__________________

Pressing On wrote
Quote:

Paul wouldn't give instructions that would contradict each other
.

Right! And I don't mean that he did.

The Gifts of the Spirit was a new surprise from God to the church. And it seems that many didn't know how to control or handle the gifts. Therefore Paul wrote 1 Cor. 12-13-14 as instructions on how they were to be in self control and yet desire and use the Gifts that God gave.

I believe that many were trying to speak in tongues all at the same time, as we see in many Charismatic churches and on TV. They were abusing the Gifts.

He wanted them to use them in the church, all of them, including speaking in tongues, because when it is interpreted, it is Prophecy and will edify the church.
But he wanted them to speak one at a time and to keep order in the church. The disorder that is reported in some churches, is not of God.

But when He told them that he spoke in tongues more than them all. If he did it in the churches, they would have known it, and he wouldn't have had to tell them.
Then he told them in the church he would rather speak five words of understanding than to speak in tongues. I believe he was also telling them, to pray in tongues at home.
Who doesn't need constantly to have their spirit edified?

Pressing-On 08-24-2013 08:58 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by renee819 (Post 1271012)
I believe he was also telling them, to pray in tongues at home.

I guess we will have to disagree on this.

Again, I Cor 14:5, says, "I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather/more; in a greater degree that ye prophesied:"

"More" or "in a greater degree" cannot mean nix it and only pray in tongues at home. Unless we are handing out duct tape at the door, I don't see how someone is going to stop a move of God during a service.

Hoovie 08-24-2013 09:45 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
I pray many prayers in church that are not audibly discernible in public assembly. This may be with or without tongues. This should be included in this discussion of Paul's admonition of publicly speaking in tongues.

Pressing-On 08-24-2013 10:06 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Hoovie (Post 1271033)
I pray many prayers in church that are not audibly discernible in public assembly. This may be with or without tongues. This should be included in this discussion of Paul's admonition of publicly speaking in tongues.

I agree. My prayers are not always audibly discernible in the church and may be with or without tongues. When Paul speaks of edifying ourselves and speaking to ourselves and God, he is talking about the distinction of volume between personal edification and tongues and interpretation.

If we are instructed to speak in tongues in church only in the event of tongues and interpretation, than anyone initially receiving the Holy Ghost wouldn't be able to do that either.

houston 08-24-2013 10:42 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Pressing-On (Post 1271038)
I agree. My prayers are not always audibly discernible in the church and may be with or without tongues. When Paul speaks of edifying ourselves and speaking to ourselves and God, he is talking about the distinction of volume between personal edification and tongues and interpretation.

If we are instructed to speak in tongues in church only in the event of tongues and interpretation, than anyone initially receiving the Holy Ghost wouldn't be able to do that either.

It's only problematic in your belief system that requires proof.

Pressing-On 08-24-2013 01:33 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by houston (Post 1271041)
It's only problematic in your belief system that requires proof.

If you attended a church, I would think you also had a belief system. :tease

houston 08-24-2013 01:52 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Pressing-On (Post 1271063)
If you attended a church, I would think you also had a belief system. :tease

Relevance?

Pressing-On 08-24-2013 02:14 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by houston (Post 1271071)
Relevance?

Totally relevant.

houston 08-24-2013 02:16 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Pressing-On (Post 1271080)
Totally relevant.

How?

renee819 08-26-2013 05:17 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Pressing-On (Post 1271030)
I guess we will have to disagree on this.

Again, I Cor 14:5, says, "I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather/more; in a greater degree that ye prophesied:"

"More" or "in a greater degree" cannot mean nix it and only pray in tongues at home. Unless we are handing out duct tape at the door, I don't see how someone is going to stop a move of God during a service.

Pressing On, What are we disagreeing on?

I'm not advocating stopping people from speaking in unknown tongues at church. Or anything to stop the flow of the Spirit.

But I don't think that all should be speaking in tongues at the same time. We must take the Word for what it means, an not what is popular today.

Quote:

1Corinthians 14:23 If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad?
:27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
:28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God
.

When I pray in church, as I said before, it is easier to pray in tongues than in my normal language, but I pray quietly to myself, because, Paul wrote,

Quote:

1 Corinthians 14:15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.
:16 Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest?
:17 For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified
.

It is evident, is it not, that Paul didn't want them all speaking at the same time. Nor did he pray, in church, in tongues. Therefore you have to ask, where did he pray in tongues more than all of them?

And then we look at he scripture that you gave,
Quote:

Again, I Cor 14:5, says, "I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather/more; in a greater degree that ye prophesied:"
Paul wishes that they all spoke in Unknown tongues. Why? Because it would edify their spiritual life. But rather that they prophesied. Why? Because whether it was the interpretation of tongues, or pure prophecy, it would benefit those that were listening. Edify the whole church.

Pressing-On 08-26-2013 09:34 AM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by renee819 (Post 1271345)
Pressing On, What are we disagreeing on?

I'm not advocating stopping people from speaking in unknown tongues at church. Or anything to stop the flow of the Spirit.

But I don't think that all should be speaking in tongues at the same time. We must take the Word for what it means, an not what is popular today.

.

When I pray in church, as I said before, it is easier to pray in tongues than in my normal language, but I pray quietly to myself, because, Paul wrote,

.

It is evident, is it not, that Paul didn't want them all speaking at the same time. Nor did he pray, in church, in tongues. Therefore you have to ask, where did he pray in tongues more than all of them?

And then we look at he scripture that you gave,


Paul wishes that they all spoke in Unknown tongues. Why? Because it would edify their spiritual life. But rather that they prophesied. Why? Because whether it was the interpretation of tongues, or pure prophecy, it would benefit those that were listening. Edify the whole church.

I think that what you are saying is confusing or I am misunderstanding you completely.

You appear to be saying:

1) I'm not advocating people stop speaking in unknown tongues in church.
2) When I pray in church, it is easier to pray in tongues than my normal language.
3) Paul never prayed in tongues in church.

I think you are using the English translation of "rather" as meaning "to prefer that to", but the Greek is using "more/in a greater degree". Whatever is being said, I want to know what the Greek is saying.

renee819 08-26-2013 12:44 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Pressing On wrote
Quote:

I think that what you are saying is confusing or I am misunderstanding you completely.

You appear to be saying:

1) I'm not advocating people stop speaking in unknown tongues in church.
2) When I pray in church, it is easier to pray in tongues than my normal language.
3) Paul never prayed in tongues in church.

I think you are using the English translation of "rather" as meaning "to prefer that to", but the Greek is using "more/in a greater degree". Whatever is being said, I want to know what the Greek is saying
.


Pressing On wrote,
Quote:

I think that what you are saying is confusing or I am misunderstanding you completely
.

I believe it is the latter---”or I am misunderstanding you completely. “ I really don't know how it is confusing.

Pressing On wrote
Quote:

You appear to be saying:

1) I'm not advocating people stop speaking in unknown tongues in church.
And I never will. Paul didn't either, only that they behave decently and in order, in speaking one at a time. And waiting for the interpretation.
Pressing On, are you going to a Charismatic Church where all speak in tongues at the same time?

Quote:

2) When I pray in church, it is easier to pray in tongues than my normal language.
But the rest of what I said, gives the sense to it.

Renee wrote
“but I pray quietly to myself, because, Paul wrote,”

1 Corinthians 14:15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.
:16 Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest?
:17 For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified

To paraphrase, Paul isn't saying that he prays in church, but when he prays n the spirit, he doesn't understand what he is saying, so he will pray with the understanding also. But if he prayed with the Spirit, (since he doesn't know what he is saying and those that hear him don't know either, then how could anyone bless that “seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest?

People were using tongues for Religious Pride, as I've seen many do today. “See, I'm holier than you, because I speak in tongues.” and especially on TV. I can't stand to watch any of those preachers.

Quote:

3) Paul never prayed in tongues in church
.

If Paul prayed in tongues in the churches, he could not have written the 16th and 17th verse.

Maybe I shouldn't say, he never. Because he may have prayed as I do, quietly to myself. A person sitting next to me, wouldn't even know that I was praying in tongues.

Pressing On, what is confusing? Are you saying that all should be speaking in tongues at the same time?

renee819 08-26-2013 01:01 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Pressing-On (Post 1271038)
I agree. My prayers are not always audibly discernible in the church and may be with or without tongues. When Paul speaks of edifying ourselves and speaking to ourselves and God, he is talking about the distinction of volume between personal edification and tongues and interpretation.

If we are instructed to speak in tongues in church only in the event of tongues and interpretation, than anyone initially receiving the Holy Ghost wouldn't be able to do that either.

I missed this one.

The difference is, These Christians in 1 Cor., had already received the Holy Ghost.
And now Paul is instructing them, on how to use the Gifts of the Spirit, that God divides between those that are already saved.

When people receive the Holy Ghost, whether 2 people or 120, they may all speak at the same time. Because the ONLY reason that they are speaking in Other Tongues---(NOT Unknown Tongues,) was to receive the Holy Ghost. And it does not need to be interpreted. It is the evidence.

Pressing-On 08-26-2013 01:16 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by renee819 (Post 1271471)
Maybe I shouldn't say, he never. Because he may have prayed as I do, quietly to myself. A person sitting next to me, wouldn't even know that I was praying in tongues.

Pressing On, what is confusing? Are you saying that all should be speaking in tongues at the same time?

The bold and underlined was the confusion.

If you say that Paul "may have" prayed quietly and that you shouldn't say, "never", you cannot also say that Paul only prayed in tongues at home. You cannot say that the chapter stresses that we can only speak in tongues at home. It's not possible that could happen in a spirit filled church.

I don't go to a Charismatic church. I do know that if I speak quietly to myself and to God, the person in front of me and beside me are, more than likely, going to hear some utterance. A whisper can still be heard to those close by. Unless, of course, I put my head in a paper sack. The person sitting behind me might hear me. Someone a few rows back probably wouldn't.

I do believe we should teach and encourage more to pray that they would be used in the gift of prophecy. From my experience, many don't feel special, worthy, anointed enough or solely inadequate. God can use anyone who is willing. But, also from experience, you can teach that until the cows come home and not get it through a person's head that God desires they would obtain that gift.

Pressing-On 08-26-2013 01:21 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by renee819 (Post 1271477)
I missed this one.

The difference is, These Christians in 1 Cor., had already received the Holy Ghost.
And now Paul is instructing them, on how to use the Gifts of the Spirit, that God divides between those that are already saved.

When people receive the Holy Ghost, whether 2 people or 120, they may all speak at the same time. Because the ONLY reason that they are speaking in Other Tongues---(NOT Unknown Tongues,) was to receive the Holy Ghost. And it does not need to be interpreted. It is the evidence.

Sure, but you have a church body with say, 120 Spirit filled people, and three receive the Holy Ghost. That means that they are speaking in tongues, more than likely, loudly. You may have 5 or 10 visitors who don't know what is going on. I've been in a service where that happened. The visitor questioned what the person was doing. So, how does that work with the admonition to only speak in tongues when an interpretation is given?

Forbid not to speak in tongues. Paul just wants order and he wants the gifts to be in evidence. He doesn't want everyone standing around - all the time - every service - edifying themselves and not ministering to the body. That is all he is saying, IMO.

houston 08-26-2013 01:22 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
How about teaching people to pray in English???

Pressing-On 08-26-2013 01:24 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by houston (Post 1271485)
How about teaching people to pray in English???

No habla ingles!!!!! :heeheehee

Real Realism 08-26-2013 01:37 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Pressing-On (Post 1271484)
Sure, but you have a church body with say, 120 Spirit filled people, and three receive the Holy Ghost. That means that they are speaking in tongues, more than likely, loudly. You may have 5 or 10 visitors who don't know what is going on. I've been in a service where that happened. The visitor questioned what the person was doing. So, how does that work with the admonition to only speak in tongues when an interpretation is given?

Paul also explains that tongues are a sign for unbelievers. (1 Corinthians 14:22) So, as you point out, there's certainly a place for unbelievers to hear someone speaking in tongues. (IMO, Acts 8 seems to be a prime example of unbelievers being awed by the demonstration of others receiving the Holy Ghost...likely, speaking in tongues. Even though Simon was a believer who was baptized, he was new to the faith and was fascinated by the power of God when he saw the Samaritans receive the Holy Ghost.)

Quote:

Originally Posted by Pressing-On (Post 1271484)
Forbid not to speak in tongues. Paul just wants order and he wants the gifts to be in evidence. He doesn't want everyone standing around - all the time - every service - edifying themselves and not ministering to the body. That is all he is saying, IMO.

This is my understanding of the passage, as well. Actually, kind of reminds me of those church services that people would brag about being in..."blow out" service where "the preacher didn't even get a chance to preach"...where all the congregation is just praising and praying in tongues the whole time. Seems to me that this isn't an experience to be coveted, but actually that Paul is saying that those types of services don't really edify the body and certainly don't edify unbelievers. Something to think about.

But bringing this topic back around to its origin...since your understanding of 1 Corinthians 14 seems to line up very closely with my own...how DO we explain Paul's passing comments that insinuate not every believer speaks in tongues?

Pressing-On 08-26-2013 02:04 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Real Realism (Post 1271491)
Paul also explains that tongues are a sign for unbelievers. (1 Corinthians 14:22) So, as you point out, there's certainly a place for unbelievers to hear someone speaking in tongues. (IMO, Acts 8 seems to be a prime example of unbelievers being awed by the demonstration of others receiving the Holy Ghost...likely, speaking in tongues. Even though Simon was a believer who was baptized, he was new to the faith and was fascinated by the power of God when he saw the Samaritans receive the Holy Ghost.)

Awesome! I like how you explained this. :thumbsup


Quote:

This is my understanding of the passage, as well. Actually, kind of reminds me of those church services that people would brag about being in..."blow out" service where "the preacher didn't even get a chance to preach"...where all the congregation is just praising and praying in tongues the whole time. Seems to me that this isn't an experience to be coveted, but actually that Paul is saying that those types of services don't really edify the body and certainly don't edify unbelievers. Something to think about.
I've been in services like this and you can't stop it. It just hits and BAM! So, again, from our experiences, we know that doesn't happen ALL the time, and still supports Paul's teaching that he doesn't want us to stand around speaking in tongues without other gifts present and in operation every service. Consistently attending a particular location, it hasn't been my experience that the congregation only spoke in tongues without the other gifts in operation as well.

Quote:

But bringing this topic back around to its origin...since your understanding of 1 Corinthians 14 seems to line up very closely with my own...how DO we explain Paul's passing comments that insinuate not every believer speaks in tongues?
I Cor 14:26 is referring to the operation of gifts. Others may use I Cor 14:26 to claim proof of "no evidence" on receiving God's Spirit. The only problem, the view would contradict the passages in Acts, i.e. with Simon, etc. And I Cor 12:30 would contradict the view as well, clearly stating that not all will be used in the gifts.

It's apparent that you must have the Spirit to operate in the gifts. And it is apparent in Acts that the evidence was tongues. You can't read in Acts 10:45-46 with Peter and the others being "astonished" that the Holy Ghost was poured out on the Gentiles stating, "for they heard them speak with tongues." I mean, I could go to the bank with that one passage alone. I could win a court case with that passage. :heeheehee

mizpeh 08-26-2013 02:34 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Real Realism (Post 1271491)

But bringing this topic back around to its origin...since your understanding of 1 Corinthians 14 seems to line up very closely with my own...how DO we explain Paul's passing comments that insinuate not every believer speaks in tongues?

Paul is speaking about the gift of tongues not the initial evidence of tongues.

Jack Shephard 08-26-2013 02:47 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by houston (Post 1271485)
How about teaching people to pray in English???

CDG, I am on a search for truth at the moment. I know you and I haven't been able to talk to you about it offline. I have a friend that I talk to about it though. I am searching for the relevance of tongues today. I have looked through scripture and have seen where God has used several warnings to a certain people prior to being wiped out, in the OT. In the NT it seems to be a similar action from God, but this is something I have talked about with my aforementioned friend. Anyway... what do you think CDG?

houston 08-26-2013 03:16 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
I apologize. I was addressing PO.

Jack Shephard 08-26-2013 05:12 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by houston (Post 1271521)
I apologize. I was addressing PO.

I know man. I was just using this forum to spill it. I am sorry. I could have just text ya.

houston 08-26-2013 05:15 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Jack Shephard (Post 1271515)
CDG, I am on a search for truth at the moment. I know you and I haven't been able to talk to you about it offline. I have a friend that I talk to about it though. I am searching for the relevance of tongues today. I have looked through scripture and have seen where God has used several warnings to a certain people prior to being wiped out, in the OT. In the NT it seems to be a similar action from God, but this is something I have talked about with my aforementioned friend. Anyway... what do you think CDG?

I'm not exactly sure that I understand the question. What does tongues have to do with wiping people out?

renee819 08-26-2013 08:26 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Originally Posted by renee819
Quote:

I missed this one.

The difference is, These Christians in 1 Cor., had already received the Holy Ghost.
And now Paul is instructing them, on how to use the Gifts of the Spirit, that God divides between those that are already saved.

When people receive the Holy Ghost, whether 2 people or 120, they may all speak at the same time. Because the ONLY reason that they are speaking in Other Tongues---(NOT Unknown Tongues,) was to receive the Holy Ghost. And it does not need to be interpreted. It is the evidence
.
.

Pressing-on wrote,
Quote:

Sure, but you have a church body with say, 120 Spirit filled people, and three receive the Holy Ghost. That means that they are speaking in tongues, more than likely, loudly. You may have 5 or 10 visitors who don't know what is going on. I've been in a service where that happened. The visitor questioned what the person was doing. So, how does that work with the admonition to only speak in tongues when an interpretation is given?
Pressing-on, you still have the two mixed up. When a person is receiving the Holy Ghost, they are speaking in Other Tongues, not in Unknown tongues.

Other Tongues----evidence of the Holy Ghost---which is Foreign Languages. If there just happens to be someone there that understands the language, they can interpret. Which is usually praises to God. But no where in the Bible does it say that Other Tongues has to be interpreted.

Unknown Tongues---is a gift from God, after a person has received the Holy Ghost.
The language is UNKNOWN---- it takes another Gift, the gift of Interpretation for the message to be known.

Quote:

1 Corinthians 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries
.

“No man understandeth him'----it doesn't matter how many foreign languages, there are among the crowd, NO MAN can understand him.

There is one reason to speak in Other Tongues, and that is to receive the Holy Ghost. And should be simple and easy to explain, using Acts 2:4

I see 4 reasons to speak in Unknown Tongues, in 1 Cor. 14.

One----You are speaking mysteries. Meaning when you pray in tongues, you are praying the perfect prayer, because it is the Holy Ghost praying thru you.

Quote:

Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.
:27 And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God
.

Two ----When tongues are interpreted, it becomes Prophecy, and will edify the church.

Three---For the unbeliever, when it is interpreted, he sees the mighty power of God. As well the interpretation may even show the secrets of his heart and therefore cause him to repent.

Four----For individual edification. It strenghtens the spirit of the one speaking in Unknown Tongues.

Pressing-on wrote
Quote:

Forbid not to speak in tongues. Paul just wants order and he wants the gifts to be in evidence. He doesn't want everyone standing around - all the time - every service - edifying themselves and not ministering to the body. That is all he is saying, IMO.
.If you remember one of my Posts, I was encouraging the saints to use their gift of tongues more in prayer. And I would encourage all if they don't have the gift to pray that God would give it to them. Or show them what gifts they have been given. I believe that everyone that has received the Holy Ghost has also received one of the gifts of the Spirit. And should use it as God directs.

However, the way that a church service is set up, does not leave much room for the Gifts to operate.

I would NEVER—NEVER , discourage anyone from using their gifts or to forbid anyone from speaking in tongues, as God directs. However I would discourage a room full of people all speaking in tongues all at the same time. As Paul did also. Unless it was a room full of people all receiving the Holy Ghost. And this is not a contradiction, if you understand the difference.

Quote:

1 Corinthians 14:23 If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad?

phareztamar 08-26-2013 09:57 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
well said my sister.
Quote:

Originally Posted by renee819 (Post 1271587)
Originally Posted by renee819
.


Pressing-on wrote,


Pressing-on, you still have the two mixed up. When a person is receiving the Holy Ghost, they are speaking in Other Tongues, not in Unknown tongues.

Other Tongues----evidence of the Holy Ghost---which is Foreign Languages. If there just happens to be someone there that understands the language, they can interpret. Which is usually praises to God. But no where in the Bible does it say that Other Tongues has to be interpreted.

Unknown Tongues---is a gift from God, after a person has received the Holy Ghost.
The language is UNKNOWN---- it takes another Gift, the gift of Interpretation for the message to be known.

.

“No man understandeth him'----it doesn't matter how many foreign languages, there are among the crowd, NO MAN can understand him.

There is one reason to speak in Other Tongues, and that is to receive the Holy Ghost. And should be simple and easy to explain, using Acts 2:4

I see 4 reasons to speak in Unknown Tongues, in 1 Cor. 14.

One----You are speaking mysteries. Meaning when you pray in tongues, you are praying the perfect prayer, because it is the Holy Ghost praying thru you.

.

Two ----When tongues are interpreted, it becomes Prophecy, and will edify the church.

Three---For the unbeliever, when it is interpreted, he sees the mighty power of God. As well the interpretation may even show the secrets of his heart and therefore cause him to repent.

Four----For individual edification. It strenghtens the spirit of the one speaking in Unknown Tongues.

Pressing-on wrote


.If you remember one of my Posts, I was encouraging the saints to use their gift of tongues more in prayer. And I would encourage all if they don't have the gift to pray that God would give it to them. Or show them what gifts they have been given. I believe that everyone that has received the Holy Ghost has also received one of the gifts of the Spirit. And should use it as God directs.

However, the way that a church service is set up, does not leave much room for the Gifts to operate.

I would NEVER—NEVER , discourage anyone from using their gifts or to forbid anyone from speaking in tongues, as God directs. However I would discourage a room full of people all speaking in tongues all at the same time. As Paul did also. Unless it was a room full of people all receiving the Holy Ghost. And this is not a contradiction, if you understand the difference.


Pressing-On 08-26-2013 11:07 PM

Re: The Gift of Tongues and Initial Evidence
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by renee819 (Post 1271587)
Pressing-on, you still have the two mixed up. When a person is receiving the Holy Ghost, they are speaking in Other Tongues, not in Unknown tongues.

I know you posted a lengthy post, which I appreciate, but let's start here as there is no point in going further if we can't clarify the point.

I don't believe I am getting them mixed up.

Acts 2:4 (other tongues) and I Cor 14:2;4;13;14;19 and 27 (unknown tongues) use the same Greek definition -

G1100
γλῶσσα
glōssa
gloce'-sah
Of uncertain affinity; the tongue; by implication a language (specifically one naturally unacquired): - tongue.

It would be the same interchangeability as using Holy Spirit and Holy Ghost - same difference.


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