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Does The Baptizor Impute The Name Of Jesus?
Must the baptizor say "Jesus" during baptism for the baptizee to be baptized in Jesus' name? In other words, does the baptizor impute the name of Jesus to the baptizee?
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If to be baptised in someone's name requires or means that the person performing the baptism actually invoke that someone's name, then obviously yes.
If not, then perhaps no. Although, if one is supposed to be baptised in someone's name, but the person performing the baptism says something else, with intention to mean something and someone else, then there's a bit of a quandry, isn't there? For then the baptism is intentionally something other than what was supposed to happen... which makes it not a proper baptism...eh? |
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:highfive |
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1: to lay the responsibility or blame for often falsely or unjustly 2: to credit to a person or a cause : attribute <our vices as well as our virtues have been imputed to bodily derangement |
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:thumbsup |
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But of course this does not change the fact that baptism in most Evangelical churches is not taught correctly in that they teach it is simply some post new birth act of worship or obedience. Scripture teaches that baptism and repentance are linked. It's when you decide to die that you might live.It's the first step to becoming a disciple. |
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Yes.
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However, ALL should be done in the name of Jesus, right? In the OP baptisms, it seems that the most important thing is what the baptizor says over the person being baptized, but really... in all reality, the one being baptized should be the one calling on the name of the Lord, and the baptizor should have a more passive role in the baptism. Further... why would you NOT want the name of Jesus spoken over you by the baptizor? Why would you not want to confess that you are a sinner and call on the Name of Jesus during baptism? After all, it is biblical, as pointed out by Esiasis in another thread with this verse: Acts 22:16 "And now, why tarriest thou? arise and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord." |
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I especially liked it when the baptizer had the one being baptized to declare their faith in the Lord Jesus. |
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From Renee's post in the General Debate Forum regarding the authenticity of Matthew 28:19:
Acts 22:16 comes down to one thing: the verb "calling upon" is from the verb epikaleomai It can have several, very related meanings, depending on context. Anything from having a surname applied/being named after someone, to having a name invoked upon/over someone, all the way up to making an appeal for someone, by name, to draw near and help on behalf of the caller. It's from epi, a superimposition meaning on, over, or above and kaleo meaning to call, to call aloud/utter in a loud voice, to invite, to salute by name, to give and/or receive a name. It's obvious then that yes, it does matter that one speaks out loud (as opposed to the silent baptism some espouse) and yes, since it does matter what the name of the Lord is (and not just the authority inherent to that name), it very much matters WHO is being called upon at the baptism. While there may be many variants to the name (e.g. Jesus, Yeshua, Yehoshua, Yesu, even Issa), and while some may preface the name with Lord, it nonetheless means that Jesus of Nazareth, the only begotten Son of God, must be verbally invoked, called upon, and invited to draw near in the baptism, since and because the whole family in heaven and on earth is surnamed after the Lord Jesus Christ (Ephesians 3:14:15). And for what end? To wash away sins. For further consideration, here is Gill's Commentary: Quote:
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Kept wrote,
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At that point, I don't believe that we should say that we are a sinner. Because we would have been forgiven of all past sins, and not living in sin. Maybe I'm wrong but I believe a sinner is one living in sin. We as Christians may commit a sin, and do sometimes but we ask for forgiveness and strive not to commit that sin again. |
Re: Does The Baptizor Impute The Name Of Jesus?
From what I can find in history, in the early church the one being baptized made a statement identifying with Jesus Christ, his deity, and his substitutionary work at calvary. Some accounts record a series of questions asked the candidate such as "Do you believe Jesus Christ is the Son of God? Do you believe that he died for your sins? Do you now accept and proclaim his Lordship in/over your life?" And after the proclamation by the candidate the baptizer would pronounce I now baptize you into Jesus Christ or in the name of Jesus Christ.
From this I began a few years ago to have the candidate profess/make a declaration before I baptize them calling on the name of the Lord. |
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Great thoughts here. I think it is appropriate to make sure they understand the demands of discipleship before submitting to baptism. The time needed for this basic understanding will vary from person to person. The Samaritans believed those things Philip preached "concerning the Kingdom of God and the Name of Jesus Christ", then they were baptized. Are we truly teaching this message (having to do with the kingly authority that is given unto the One bearing that most precious name and our requirement of total surrender to his authority), or are we stressing vocalization of the name only, thus misleading and robbing the baptizee of a clearer understanding? Are we leading them into a surrender to the authority of the One bearing the name, or are we starting their conversion with indoctrination on how to be a good Oneness Pentecostal? |
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Peter in Acts 2 said 'whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.' Prompting a question - 'what shall we do?' The answer was 'repent and be baptised each of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.' Thus, calling upon the name of the Lord for salvation and being baptised in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins are connected. Paul taught 'if you confess with the mouth the Lord Jesus you shall be saved' because 'whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved'. This clearly identifies the person who wishes to be saved, is the one who is to call upon the name of the Lord. Acts 22:16 reinforces this, and ties this personal, vocal calling upon the name of the Lord for salvation with being baptised and washing away one's sins. Taken altogether, it seems that to be baptised in the name of the Lord for the remission of sins means to be baptised, with the one being baptised calling vocally and 'out loud' upon Jesus to save them. The only possible indication that the person performing the baptism is to say anything, is found in James 2:7 where the phrase 'by which ye are called' in reference to the name of the Lord may be possibly translated as 'which was called upon you'. However, it is not certain that James here is referring to baptism, but is instead using an idion familiar to any Hebrew or Jew, that is, the 'name which is called upon you' or 'invoked upon you' is a phrase which means that you belong to the one who's name you bear. The phrase appears several times in the Old Testament but does not necessarily indicate a formal vocalising of the 'name' upon or over someone in any kind of ceremony. ?It is therefore doubtful that it means that here in James. If anything, then, it is clear that the one being baptised is to call upon the Lord for salvation. It may be thought necessary for the baptiser (one performing the baptism) to make some sort of declaration such as '?i baptise you in the name of Jesus Christ' but the more I look at it the less this seems to be demanded by Scripture, and not rather by tradition or expediency to establish a distinction between Christian baptism, and trinitarian baptism (or some other baptism.) |
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http://books.google.com/books?id=xC9...aptism&f=false
That link is a fascinating treatment of the subject of baptismal formulas in the post apostolic period. Apparently the first appearance of 'I baptise you in the name of...' in the Western (catholic) church is the 8th century, and in the eastern church in the 4th century. |
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Deep Thoughts
Is a deaf person (who cannot speak or speaks very very poorly) disqualified from baptizing someone since they cannot enunciate the name "Jesus"? If you had not been baptized and were on a deserted island with such a person, would you thoroughly screwed? |
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Randy, I knew a deaf minister who signed the name of Jesus, though he could speak to some degree, having lost about 90% or more of his hearing when he was about three, i.e. after he had learned to somewhat speak. So, he also said the name, as best as he could, when he water baptized.
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I believe that any individual soul that wants to be saved must call upon the name of Jesus Christ, verbally, in order to be saved. Should they do so immediately before or as they are being baptized? I say yes, as they should be an active, willing participant in their baptism. Note however, that much of the calling on the name aspect of a person's salvation is done prior to the water immersion act, when they are praying, calling out to the Lord for mercy, repentance, forgiveness, etc. Should the baptizer say the name of the Lord over the candidate? Yes, since invoking the name by the baptizer shows his or her correct understanding of water baptism and is a proof of their righteous authority granted to them by Christ to go and baptize people. Whatsoever done in word or deed. We verbally pray in the name of Jesus as a way to demonstrate our faith in the object of our prayer, but also to invoke the authority of the One who told us to ask in His name. So, if either the one wanting to be saved is not calling on the name of the Lord Jesus AND if the baptizer doesn't invoke the name of Jesus Christ during the baptism, then there is, in my opinion, a disconnect between what is required by the Word and what is actually being practiced in that moment. |
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