Did Jesus Christ Have The Ability To Sin ?
 

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched ,with the feeling of our infirmities ,but was in all points tempted as we are ,yet without sin.HEBREWS.4:15

We know that Jesus Christ was the only begotten of the Father full of grace and truth ,as well as being God manifest in the flesh.

We know that He was borned of a virgin ,and did not have a fallen Adamic nature ,yet He was tempted in all points like as we are yet He didn't sin.

But did Jesus Christ in His humanity have the ability or potential to sin ,had He chosen to ?

What say ye did Jesus Christ have the ability to commit sin ?

Yes He could have sinned.

It would have been a sin to accept anything the devil tempted Him with in the wilderness.......

Is there anybody out there who says no ?

Yes, and I k now this is a controversial subject. But if He did not have the ability to sin, then neither was he truly like us so that He could die as us and redeem us.

The story of Ruth relates an important part of redemption that is absolutely essential to the owrking of our plan of salvation. This is the aspect of KINSMAN REDEEMER. Boaz represented Christ. And Boaz was only able to redeem the land and name of Ruth's departed husband since he was KIN to her deceased husband. This is called LEVIRATE LAW. Similarly, Christ could only redeem mankind because Christ was a MAN. An angel could not do so, and neither could God without incarnation of Himself. Since death came by man, resurrection from the dead must come by a man. Hence, Christ incarnate. Heb 2:14 says He toook upon himself the flesh and blood of which we partake in order to be able to die. That same potential to die had the potential to sin.

Sin causes death. Since Christ was able to die, then that means He was able to sin. He did die, of course, but not due to any sin He committed. It was obviously our sin which He took upon Himself. However, the fact remains that He could and did die, so He could have sinned. If He could not have sinned, then neither could He have died.

Put it this way, if He could not sin, then neither could He take upon Himself our sins. The same reason that would not allow HIm to sin would be the reason He could nto take our sin upon Himself.

And what really indicates Christ COULD HAVE sinned is that He was TEMPTED. And if someone cannot sin, then they cannot be tempted to sin. And because the Bible says Christ "was tempted", then that means He had the potential to sin, or else He could have told the devil, "Your offer does not tempt me."

On the other hand, though, we could say He could not sin only because IT WAS FOREKNOWN by God, and prophesied, that He would succeed and not sin. Therefore, IN THAT RESPECT ALONE, He could not sin. As per POTENTIAL, YES he could have sinned. As per the foreknowledge of God, NO, He could not.

Probably, but they're wrong. lol

Altho Yeshua was TEMPTED in all points as we are the answer is no he could not have sinned. He was FORE ORDAINED to be the lamb of God. The sovereignty of God had appointed him to be our Savoir.

I agree, and said that. But as per potential to sin, yes.

Hey Michael The Disciple could God make a rock so big ,He couldn't pick it up ?

I agree.

yes, and then if He wanted to pick it up He could.


ARPH :doggyrun

There is no "what if".

Thank you. I hate that question with a passion. I've heard men say that God would have had to go with a plan B. :(

I believe the Lord Jesus Christ was impeccable (Incabale of Sinning). He felt the weight of temptation, but by virtue of the fact that God cannot sin and Jesus was God incarnate he could not act out on the temptations. Someone might respond that Jesus could have sinned by virtue of his humanity, but even though it is important that the two natures that of Christ be distinguished, the two natures cannever be seperated or divided, so if Jesus sinned in his humanity, the divine part of him would have sinned as well.

NOPE.

Yes, He could have sinned. He was tempted and is able to help us with our temptations. He was/is human after all.

Bro Blume, I like your the explanations in your post. Another question I would ask is did Jesus have sinful flesh?

Jesus had human nature but NOT fallen human nature. No sin nature.

How did he escape having a fallen human nature?

Can he truly understand our weaknesses and be our high priest before God if he isn't like unto us in all things?

He had NO sinful nature it was NOT fallen nature. His nature was like Adam's before the fall with the exception His blood came from God so while he was yet man he was also God.

If Jesus was tempted in all manner as we are, then the folks who say he was married are correct since that is the source of the worst temptations we, as men, face. Just Kidding!!!!! Actually the foreordained resistance to sin by the Man Jesus Christ was to show us that temptation can be faced and overcome by us lowly humans.

The problem with this post is found in the two highlighted comments.

James 1:13 says that God cannot be tempted with evil. You deduce that since Jesus was God it would be impossible for Him to sin. However you have to come to terms with Scriptures that contradict this.

Matt. 4 records the temptation of Jesus in the wilderness. His humanity was legitimate. If not, His sacrifice is not legitimate. Phil. 2 makes sense out of the apparent dichotomy. "Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made himself nothing...."

The fact is that Jesus, although God, laid aside His Divine prerogatives and lived the life of the Son of God. God can't be tempted, but the Son of God can, just like the rest of us sons of God can. If not, He isn't truly the Son of God.

He was made a little lower than the angels, and we know angels can sin, check out Lucifer in Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28. God cannot be tempted. Jesus, the Son of God can. God can't sin. Jesus, the Son of God could have, but thank God was only tempted in all points without sin!

That very fact makes His death on the cross a substitutionary sacrifice. He became sin for us so that we might be set free!

You cannot divide the two natures---but God can. What God has joined together let no man separate---but God can separate. Jesus was a Spirit-filled and Spirit-led Son of God. So are we. When Jesus died, He gave up the Spirit---the Spirit dividing itself from the flesh. The "what if" Christ had sinned is a non-sequitor. He was fully and totally yielded to the will of the Spirit and allowed Himself to be led as a man by the Spirit. If we would totally yield to God as He did, we would live a sin-free life!

[QUOTE=Scott Hutchinson;158721]For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched ,with the feeling of our infirmities ,but was in all points tempted as we are ,yet without sin.HEBREWS.4:15

We know that Jesus Christ was the only begotten of the Father full of grace and truth ,as well as being God manifest in the flesh.

We know that He was borned of a virgin ,and did not have a fallen Adamic nature ,yet He was tempted in all points like as we are yet He didn't sin.

But did Jesus Christ in His humanity have the ability or potential to sin ,had He chosen to ?

What say ye did Jesus Christ have the ability to commit sin ?[/QUOTE

Isnt this the divine flesh theory? Im not real familiar with it and dont believe it is anything Id ever believe for myself.

Logging in as a vote for "NO!"

I have explained my position on nfcf, but if I have time I'll try to do so again.

Your last paragraph sounds like a mixture of Nestorianism and the Kenosis theory. The passage in Philipians mentions nothing about Jesus laying aside divine attributes, its a passage that speaks beautifully of his condecending to our level. Concerning weather or not a Christ who could not sin would be sufficient to redeem humanity, I would say that a Christ seperated from diety could not redeem the human family. The death of a man who isn't God would't be sufficient to atone for the sins of the world.

Right on.

No, I do not believe he had sinful flesh. Otherwise, someone would have had to die for Him! He was sinless. Like us and tempted like us in all points, but without sin.

There are two extremes of error, I think. One is that Jesus could not sin -- potential wise -- becuase He was God, and another error that he was just a man and not God at all. If He was just a man and not God, He had sin like we do, and could not die for our sins, since that means He'd have need of someone dying for Him! But since He is God manifested in flesh, it is the FLESH that had the capability to sin. Otherwise, it was not true flesh.

Adam, remember, was created without sin, BUT HAD THE POTENTIAL TO SIN. Same with Jesus, the LAST Adam. But Christ succeeded whiule Adam failed.

As per the thought that His divine nature was inseparable from His human nature, I DISAGREE. They are distinct natures. And His human nature COULD SIN.

My thoughts, anyway.

Jesus did not inherit sin. Inheritance of sin is a spiritual issue. Since sin is handed down through Adam's race due to Adam's sin, the HEADSHIP is the avenue of sin's route to us today. We all had HUMAN fathers. And FATHERS are the head, spiritually speaking. Because God was the Son's Father, then Jesus did not inherit sin.

All it took to atone for the sins of the world was a sinless man. But there was no man found to fill the breach, so God did what man could not do.

If Jesus overcame sin because he was God and used his divine power to resist temptation, what hope do we have of overcoming temtation? We would all need to be God.

I think that's why the new man ... has the Spirit of God dwelling in him, Mizpeh. His Spirit regenerates us ... and gives us that power that dwelt in Him.

If you say his human nature can sin, then you are advocating Nestorianism. Can these two natures speak to each other within the man, Jesus Christ?

I agree with you with to a point, Daniel. We can overcome because we have the Spirit in us. We overcome the same way Christ overcame, He is our example, by relying on the indwelling Spirit to guide us and keep us from sin. Jesus said the Father dwelt in him, and He was full of the Holy Ghost.

This is different than saying Jesus overcame because He was God. I believe Jesus is God become flesh but I also believe, like Deacon, Jesus did not use his own divine power to overcome but relied on the indwelling Spirit to help him resist temptation.

but herein lies the dilemma of those who claim to corner the understanding of the Godhead ... and I'm not implying you are making such a claim

but if I read you correctly you say Jesus did not use his divine power to overcome but relied on the indwelling Spirit ... Isn't Jesus the Holy Spirit in his divine form ??? Didnt he rely on his own divine power by relying in the Spirit the indwell in him ... unless it belonged to another entity ... or person????

I don't pretend to have the answer but the arrogance of some in our movement has put us in a precarious situation to try to explain every nuance using pre-determined and pre-defined models .... there are somethings we don't need to understand ... they add to the awesome and wonder of the fulness of the Godhead that dwelt in Christ ... it makes my stand in awe of HIM even more ...

Jesus lacked an inherited sin, because He is the Son of God not the son of Adam. Without the sin virus He had no inclination to sin.

I think the more and more we bear fruit to the point we consistently bear much fruit, the more we are successful at overcoming temptation...conversely, the more the body of Believers bear no fruit, the more they will see themselves fighting temptation. IMO

Yes, Dan, you have understood what I said. But to answer your question requires a long winded answer. :uhoh

Jesus made distinctions between himself and his Father. He spoke as if he were someone other than God and then other times he spoke as if he were God. Jesus said the Father that dwells in me does the works.John 14:10 Jesus spoke the words given to him by the Father. John 12:49-50, Deut 18:18-19 Jesus was anointed by God. Acts 4:27, Acts 10:38
These verses all suggest Jesus walked this earth like most of the prophets as a man anointed of God. Luke 4:1 makes another distinction between Jesus and the Holy Ghost. The confusion, in my mind anyways, sets in when the Bible clearly tells us Jesus is God manifest in the flesh as well as some of the things Jesus says sounds like something only God could attest to. John 8:58
So to answer your questions

1) Isn't Jesus the Holy Spirit in his divine form ??? Yes, Jesus is the Spirit in human form, although I don't know of a verse that specifically states the Spirit became flesh. It seems the word, Spirit, when used to describe God is used in the aspect of God in action in a specific place.

2) Didnt he rely on his own divine power by relying in the Spirit the indwell in him Yes, in a sense, but if you go by the things that Jesus said, he truly made a distinction between himself and the Spirit. John 5:30 He didn't think or perceive of himself as God, or as the Father, or even as the Holy Spirit.

3) unless it belonged to another entity ... or person NO! the Spirit is not another entity nor another person. Did you read what Deacon Blues wrote in this thread. Someone accused DB of Nestorianism and using the Kenosis theory. Well, I disagree with Nestorianism but I do agree with the arguement of the Kenosis theory but I don't go to Phil 2 to find it. I find it in Hebrews. This is my version: to become like one of us, prior to God being born a man, He decided in advance to not use or take advantage of his divine powers when becoming man. Being in human form, he was limited to time and place, he had to grow, learn, acquire wisdom, endure temptation, obey, etc, IOW, he was like us. I don't think Jesus Christ remembered the time before he became man because he functioned completely through his humanity. As a human, he needed to the anointing of God to do the miracles he did, to perceive the thoughts of men, to cast out devils...

I don't have anything close to a complete understanding of how God became like one of us. You may be content to leave this subject be, but I want to know Him as much as the Bible and the Spirit allow me to. Trinitarians claim to understand this mystery 1Tim 3:16. And in witnessing to them about who Jesus really is this topic inevitably comes up. I want to have a Biblical answer for them and not be accused of "dividing a person" or having a "Nestorian Christology". I also want to understand the things that Jesus said.

Call the law we agree.:sly

Sure He could have. Why would He be tempted if He could not sin. Why did the Devil try and tempt Him? The reason that He did not fall into sin or bow to satan is because He said, "it is written." That was enough for Jesus to resist sin. Would He have sinned, No! But could He, sure. He is God He could do anything he wanted.