Doctrinal Question - Someone Please Take a Shot at This.
 

I was thinking recently about the Catholic doctrine of confession (to a priest), which we of course know is an unscriptural practice.

However, the Catholic church feels they have biblical justification for it. The scripture they use is (John 20:22-23):

22 And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: 23 Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.

Therefore according to this argument, Roman Catholic priests, based on the authority handed down from the apostles, have the power to remit or retain sins.

Your thoughts please... How would you respond to someone who is Catholic, and defends the practice using that particular scripture?

Hmmm interesting...I wondered when I saw that scripture if "we" also lean on that scripturte for our stance on Sins ONLY being remitted when a "man" plunges one beneaththe water and calls on the name of the Lord.

Do we make ourselves an instument of remitting someones sins. No ones sins can remitted without a "preist/preacher" doing the work fo rthem.

Just a side thought TRF....sorry, it's not an answer to your question. :star

Well, if you are in the Confessional and the Priest does not grant Absolution, slip him a few buck under the divide. He wll then "remit" your sins. If not, just go to another Priest. Hey, sometimes you have to shop the sin around some...but there's no problem.

I have always thought of this as a forgiveness passage...

Apples and oranges sir. Apples and oranges. But I wont even bother explaining because 1/ it may not really make a difference anyway , and 2/ I'd like to stay on topic if possible.

I hear you. But I think a Catholic could plausibly state that it's more than a forgiveness passage, since Jesus already said we should forgive one another (up to 70x 7).

Appreciate the input though.

I understand the 70 x 7.

But that statement goes to human nature.

The fact is humans have a hard time with forgiveness...

Since sins are remitted at water baptism, if you refuse to baptise someone then they remain in their sins and if you baptism someone their sins are remitted.
After initial baptism, we confess our sins to God directly 1John1:7

Let..I say Let the Catholic Priest show us where in Acts this was done...

The Catholic Encyclopedia defines “Absolution” as: that act of the priest whereby, in the Sacrament of Penance, HE FREES MAN FROM SIN. It presupposes on the part of the penitent, contrition, confession, and promise at least of satisfaction; on the part of the minister, valid reception of the Order of Priesthood and jurisdiction, GRANTED BY COMPETENT AUTHORITY, OVER THE PERSON RECEIVING THE SACRAMENT. That there is in the CHURCH POWER TO ABSOLVE SINS committed after baptism the Council of Trent thus declares: "But the Lord then principally instituted the Sacrament of Penance, when, being raised from the dead, He breathed upon His disciples saying, 'Receive ye the Holy Ghost. Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them, and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained.' By which action so signal, and words so clear the consent of all the Fathers has ever understood that THE POWER OF FORGIVING AND RETAINING SINS WAS COMMUNICATED TO THE APOSTLES, AND TO THEIR LAWFUL SUCCESSORS for the reconciling of the faithful who have fallen after baptism" (Sess. XIV, i). (UPPERCASES added for emphasis)

Where does such practice lead? Look at what the Universal Life Church does with such forgiveness power:

:SIGH: Why do men always fight so against the simplicity of God’s Word?

Please consider this; Jesus told the Apostles that whatever sins they remitted would be remitted, and whatever sins they retained would be retained (See John 20:22, 23). Jesus never meant this as a promise that these men—or any men—would have power to absolve or condemn sin. This is especially true when one sees that the Bible says that only God has such power (See Mark 2:7, 10). Through the whole counsel of God’s Word what we do find is that Jesus was telling His Apostles that their word would play a key role in making His gospel promise a reality in men and women. To solidify this Jesus gave these men the keys to His kingdom (See Matt 16:13-19). A key is an instrument through which one can gain access to that which was unavailable to them. Jesus said that these apostolic keys would either bind men and keep them from accessing things here on earth and in heaven, or it would loose them to experience things here on earth and in heaven. “Bind” is to declare to be improper and unlawful; “loose” is to declare lawful. Here we see that the key is the Apostles’ Words and it functions according to how it is received by the hearer.

Now look at what Jesus prayed: “Neither pray I for these alone, BUT FOR THEM ALSO WHICH SHALL BELIEVE ON ME THROUGH THEIR WORD.” (John 17:20)

What word would they preach? Jesus answered that in verse eight and fourteen of the same chapter:

John 17:8
(8) For I HAVE GIVEN UNTO THEM THE WORDS WHICH THOU GAVEST ME; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.

John 17:14
(14) I HAVE GIVEN THEM THY WORD; and the world hath hated them, because they are not of the world, even as I am not of the world.

I hope this helps.