Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Writ?
 

Before I continue any further, let me pre-empt this post w/ the following disclaimers

Now here goes ….

Paul, like other Jewish Christians, considered the Torah and the words of the prophets to be Scripture. As a religious scholar who considered himself as once being the chief of the Pharisees and who studied under the feet of Gamaliel … writes to his son in the Lord, Timothy …


16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, 17so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work.

Even the most novice theologian will tell you that when he wrote these words he did so as advice to a young pastor and mentee in the Lord.

And I believe … it’s safe to say that he did not believe this correspondence to be the Scripture described in this passage. I think it’s also safe to say that the other Hebraic epistle writers did not know that their writings would be compiled into a second or New Testament to be added to what they considered Scripture (the OT?).

Considering the nature of these letters that are targeted to specific churches and/or individuals … must we keep the purpose and audience of these letters into account when we are rightly dividing the Word of God.

1. For example, as a pastor/overseer of many works in Asia and Europe we see Paul addressing various issues and topics that are unique to a particular church region.

It’s believed that other letters ( possibly 4 total?) were written to the church in Corinth … yet we have only 2 in our bibles.

Were the other letters not inspired by the Spirit of God? If we were to uncover them today would we need to add them to our Bibles?

Undoubtedly, there is valuable and God inspired commandments, counsel and modern-day applications found in Paul’s writings to these specific churches. We get invaluable insight to the Apostles doctrine of the 1st century church from these epistles also.

Yet there are instances that we find traces in these letters that may not be directly from the lips of God.

2. Paul, at times, gives his personal opinion …

In the following two verses quoted as examples, Paul admits he was not inspired in giving some of his advice. He states that had "given his (personal) opinion" and had expressed what he personally "thought to be good".

Now concerning virgins I have no commandment of the Lord;
but I give my opinion.....


3 There are times we see him express personal issues he has w/ others … along w/ open personal rebukes.

4. Paul changing his mind …

In 2 Cor 2:5-11

Paul wrote to instruct the Corinthians on what to do about the particular man who had previously caused him so much trouble but now had repented. Paul instructed the Corinthians to forgive him and receive him back.

In another instance had cast away Mark, as being a frivolous and irresponsible young man, but years later he calls for him believing he is useful to the ministry.

5. Paul using the letters to defend himself against those who opposed and criticized him

Ex: In Second Corinthians

10:1-13:10
In this section, Paul turns his attention to the minority that still opposes him. The tone of the letter changes from conciliatory to confrontational.

10:1-18
Paul defends himself against the charges that he is timid in person but bold when he writes to them and that he lives "according to the flesh." He explains that unlike his opponents, he and his colleagues do not compare themselves, commend themselves or boast beyond limits.

11:1-12:13
Paul unwillingly compares himself to his opponents, the "super-apostles," in order to prove that he is not their inferior. He does so with great reservation because he believes that a criterion of apostolic ministry is "weakness," which is incompatible with such self-assertion. He explains how God gave him a "thorn in the flesh" to prevent him from becoming conceited after having heard inexpressible things while caught up in the third heaven.

c. 12:14-13:10
Paul announces to the Corinthians that he is soon coming again to Corinth, and he defends himself against the charge that he exploits the Corinthian during his visits. Paul tells them that he does not want to find sin in the church when he comes and warns his remaining opponents that he will not spare them upon his third visit. He admonishes them to examine themselves to be sure that they are in the faith.


6. And there are times we see him share mundane and business related matters w/ little or no bearing to us ….

Everything from farewells, greetings, appeals for offerings and even travel plans …

2 Cor 1:12-2:4
Paul wrote to defend himself against the charge that he changed his travel plans several times without justification. The charge was that Paul could not be trusted to do what he promised. He explained that, each time he changed his travel plans, he had a good reason.

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And so the question in my thread title still holds:

Did Paul consider or intend for his letters to be holy writ?

What considerations should we make when reconciling the nature of these writings and our obligation to rightly divide the Word?

Do all of his words hold equal weight w/ pronouncements from God through the prophets, patriarchs and even those quoted by Jesus in the Gospels and Revelation?

What must we factor when teaching and formulating doctrine based on the Epsitles? Target audience? Purpose of writing? Specific issues germaine to the time and culture?

Is Paul rolling over in his grave at the sight of how the modern-day Church has handled, or maybe mis-handled, his letters?

Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr
 

We can't know the answers to your question, although you seem to have come to a conclusion. He certainly knew the Word of God would live beyone his time, but how could he know that his writings would become part of it? I don't really know. But they are.

Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr
 

Interesting but of course rhetorical question.

It is obvious when Paul speaks of scripture he meant Torah because the Bible as we know was not canonized within his lifetime, or even his generation.

It would be interesting to see how Christendom would react if for example the lost espistle to the Laodiceans were found

Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr
 

Often times writers or people that write their work becomes more prolific after their passing. You often see this with painters and other artist as well. I think that Paul meant for his writtings to be used to motivate and to lead a people. There is no way to know for certain whether he meant them to be Holy Writ. I believe that God led him to write it and God did the rest.

Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr
 

Indeed, Encryptus ...

Colossians 4:16, mentions a letter sent to the church in Laodicea.

"Now when this epistle is read among you, see that it is read also in the church of the Laodiceans, and that you likewise read the epistle from Laodicea."

Most commentators on this passage express the view that this letter must have been lost. Yet, that is a surprising opinion when you think about the care early Christians took in preserving the words of God. We also need to remember Jesus' promise expressed in Mark 13:31, "Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will by no means pass away." Jesus was stating the certainty of the prophesy that he just made, but it remains that God views his word as permanent. The apostles also say that their writings would be long-lasting. "Since you have purified your souls in obeying the truth through the Spirit in sincere love of the brethren, love one another fervently with a pure heart, having been born again, not of corruptible seed but incorruptible, through the word of God which lives and abides forever, because "All flesh is as grass, And all the glory of man as the flower of the grass. The grass withers, And its flower falls away, But the word of the LORD endures forever." Now this is the word which by the gospel was preached to you" (I Peter 1:22-25).

The idea that we have lost a letter that was known to at least two congregations is very disturbing.

So, what has happened to the letter to the Laodiceans?

http://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org...2003-10-29.htm

Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr
 

But what should we factor in formulating and teaching doctrine when it comes to the nature of these letters ...?

By Paul's admission some of it is personal opinion.

Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr
 

Daniel there is a difference between questioning the theology found in Paul's "letters" - Mainly Romans, and Hebrews etc. and the pastoral letters concerning dress and conduct. Women's hair- "we have no other custom".

Are you attempting to delineate between the two or are you suggesting nothing but the historical books (Gospels and Acts) should be considered sacred. Or that only the prophetic book (Revelation) should be?

What are you purposing be accepted as sacred, and what are you purposing be accepted as Apostle Paul's suggestion?

Where would the line be drawn and what would be the criteria. And if more importantly who would decide?

Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr
 

All very good questions ... That we need to examine, James.

I think the Bible as we have it is sacred, BTW ... including the Epistles.

Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr
 

On the subject of the pastoral passages found in Paul's writings ... James ...

Does the pastoral advice to one individual ... or church ... apply to all in all instances for all time?

Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr
 

Hmmm . . . I thought that at the council of something or another they decided what was cannon and what wasn't.